Probability: Flawed Assumptions in Picking M&M's

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The discussion centers around a quiz question regarding the probability of selecting a red M&M after drawing ten non-red candies. The student argues that the probability of picking a red M&M increases after not selecting one in previous draws, while the teacher asserts that the friend's statement is incorrect. Key points include the distinction between overall probabilities and the specific makeup of individual bags, which can vary. The conversation highlights the importance of interpreting probability correctly, especially in the context of finite samples versus large populations. Ultimately, the debate emphasizes the nuances in understanding probability and the implications of assumptions made about the contents of the M&M bag.
  • #31
D H said:
No. that is P(R|Hi), the probability of getting a red assuming hypothesis i. P(R|Hi,E) is the conditional probability of getting a red assuming hypothesis i and given the evidence and given the empirical priors:

Agreed, and this is i/5 (the probability that 11th is red given first 10 not red and i reds altogether).

D H said:
P(R|H_i,E) = P(R|H_i)P(H_i|E)

Not true (e.g. by a Venn diagram argument). Perhaps you meant to write

P(R,H_i|E) = P(R|H_i,E)P(H_i|E)

so that

P(R|E) = \sum_i P(R,H_i|E)
 
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  • #32
D H said:
<br /> \begin{tabular}{clllll}<br /> $ i $ &amp; $ P(H_i) $ &amp; $ P(E|H_i) $ &amp; $ P(H_i)P(E|H_i) $ &amp; $ P(H_i|E)\qquad $ &amp; $ P(R|H_i,E) $ \\<br /> \hline<br /> 0 &amp; 0.24 &amp; 1 &amp; 0.24 &amp; 0.64070834 &amp; 0 \\<br /> 1 &amp; 0.33 &amp; 0.33333333 &amp; 0.11 &amp; 0.29365799 &amp; 0.05873160 \\<br /> 2 &amp; 0.23 &amp; 0.09523810 &amp; 0.02190476 &amp; 0.05847735 &amp; 0.02339094 \\<br /> 3 &amp; 0.11 &amp; 0.02197802 &amp; 0.00241758 &amp; 0.00645402 &amp; 0.00387241 \\<br /> 4 &amp; 0.07 &amp; 0.00366300 &amp; 0.00025641 &amp; 0.00068452 &amp; 0.00054761 \\<br /> 5 &amp; 0.02 &amp; 0.00033300 &amp; 0.00000666 &amp; 0.00001778 &amp; 0.00001778 \\<br /> \hline<br /> Total &amp;&amp;&amp; 0.37458541 &amp; 1 &amp; 0.08656034 \\<br /> \end{tabular}

Do you have a mistake in calculating the final probabiity P(R|E)? It seems as though you've calculated

P(R|E) = \sum_i P(R|Hi, E)

whereas you should really be calculating

P(R|E) = \sum_i P(R|Hi,E) P(Hi|E)

It seems intuitively obvious (and I'm pretty sure I have a proof) that if we let p be the average proportion of red candies in each bag, Y be the number of red candies in the first n draws and R be the event "the next candy is red" then

P(R | Y=m) = p

i.e. the probability that the next candy is red is independent of what colors the first m candies were. Note that if p=10% and we've drawn 14 out of the 15 candies in the bag, this tells us that the hypothesis "all the candies are green" is 9 times more likely than the hypothesis "all but one of the candies are green, and we've chosen all the green ones so far", which seems reasonable.
 
  • #33
It would be interesting to know what questions a and b are, the questions and answers might give sufficient information as to whether the bag contained a fixed ratio of sweets to start with just a random selection.
 
  • #34
I think, things are very clear,actually.

Lets denote the number of candies in a bag by N, the number of red candies by m and the probability that the first red will appear at k-th draw by P(k).
Because we have here a sampling without replacement, the following holds:

P(k+1)/P(k)=(N+1-k-m)/(N-k)=1-(m-1)/(N-k)

So P(k+1)<P(k). The probability decreases in any case until m>1.
In case of m=1 the probability remains the same.

There is no need any reference to Bayes' Theorem or to the particularity of the production of M&M's etc.
 
  • #35
bpet said:
D H said:
P(R|Hi,E) is the conditional probability of getting a red assuming hypothesis i and given the evidence and given the empirical priors:

P(R|H_i,E) = P(R|H_i)P(H_i|E)
Not true (e.g. by a Venn diagram argument). Perhaps you meant to write

P(R,H_i|E) = P(R|H_i,E)P(H_i|E)

so that

P(R|E) = \sum_i P(R,H_i|E)

Cexy said:
Do you have a mistake in calculating the final probabiity P(R|E)? It seems as though you've calculated

P(R|E) = \sum_i P(R|Hi, E)

whereas you should really be calculating

P(R|E) = \sum_i P(R|Hi,E) P(Hi|E)
No and no.

What I should be calculating is exactly what is in that table.

Suppose you have partitioned the sample space Ω into subsets {Ai} such that
1. Each Ai is a subset of Ω,
2. The union of all Ai is Ω, and
3. The intersection of any two members of {Ai} is the empty set.
Then the probability of some event B is

P(A) = \sum_i P(A|B_i)P(B_i)

This is the total probability theorem. See http://www.cs.cornell.edu/courses/cs280/2004sp/probability3.pdf (Note: This reference also discusses Bayes' Theorem.)

In the problem at hand, we are randomly drawing one M&M from a partially emptied bag of candies that contains five candies of which zero to five are red. There are six mutually exclusive possibilities: The contents of the bag now include exactly zero (A0), one (A1), two (A2), three (A3), four (A4), of five (A5) red candies. Because ∪Ai=Ω and AiAjij, this a partition of the sample space. Thus the total probability that the next candy drawn from the bag is red is

P(R) = \sum_{i=0}^5 P(R|A_i)P(A_i)

The conditional probabilities P(R|Ai) are easily calculated: They are i/5. The only remaining issue is to calculate the probabilities P(Ai). This has already been done: The conditional probabilities P(Hi|E) are the best guesses available regarding the probabilities P(Ai). Thus

<br /> P(R) =<br /> \sum_{i=0}^5 P(R|A_i)P(A_i) =<br /> \sum_{i=0}^5 P(R|H_i\,\text{and}\,E)P(H_i|E)<br /> \,\,\text{where}\,P(R|H_i\,\text{and}\,E)=i/5

It is often handy to give those somewhat awkward P(R|Hi and E)P(Hi|E) a name. In many texts and articles this name is P(R|Hi,E).
 
  • #36
D H said:
...It is often handy to give those somewhat awkward P(R|Hi and E)P(Hi|E) a name. In many texts and articles this name is P(R|Hi,E).

Ok thanks for taking the time to explain that subtle point about the notation. It's unfortunate that the literature has chosen this convention when we have P(R|H_i \mbox{ and } E)P(H_i|E) = P(R \mbox{ and } H_i|E)
 
  • #37
The bag is superfluous in this problem.

So yes, original-poster, you are specifically correct, every time you don't find a red, your chance of drawing a red from a finite set that has a finite set of reds increases.

This is not the same as a gambler's fallacy, where the picks are reset every time (like a coin or a roulette wheel).

But your teacher is big-picture correct that the difference is so small, that it is effectively zero.

{{Another way of thinking about the bag being meaningless (if that bothers you) is that every time it was filled 1 M&M at a time, the odds of what the next M&M would be changed. So as its filled it becomes more and more improbable that the bag will be filled with all non-red M&M's. But this is the same as you picking directly from the factory set, not the bag.}}
 
  • #38
Eero said:
...There is no need any reference to Bayes' Theorem or to the particularity of the production of M&M's etc.

diggy said:
The bag is superfluous in this problem...

That was my first thought as well, but it's incorrect. See e.g. posts #23 and #28 to see why the mixing model does matter.

Edit: see also posts #35, 36 regarding the difference in notation between D H's table and mine (our posts are too old to edit now).
 
  • #39
diggy said:
The bag is superfluous in this problem.

So yes, original-poster, you are specifically correct, every time you don't find a red, your chance of drawing a red from a finite set that has a finite set of reds increases.
Try reading the replies. The bag is anything but superfluous in this problem. It is central to it.
 
  • #40
D H said:
Try reading the replies. The bag is anything but superfluous in this problem. It is central to it.

Which post are you considering the correct interpretation?
 
  • #41
Just to simplify life -- assume the factory that made (10) M&M's, (1) of which was red. They are put in (2) bags with (5) M&M's in each. You eat your first M&M and its blue.

I assume we all agree on the next M&M being more likely to be red, yes?
 
  • #42
diggy said:
Just to simplify life -- assume the factory that made (10) M&M's, (1) of which was red. They are put in (2) bags with (5) M&M's in each. You eat your first M&M and its blue.

Alternate assumption: there are 3486784401 bags with 0 red M&Ms in them, 3874204890 bags with 1 red M&M in them, 1937102445 bags with 2 red M&Ms in them, 573956280 bags with red 3 M&Ms in them, 111602610 bags with 4 red M&Ms in them, 14880348 bags with 5 red M&Ms in them, 1377810 bags with 6 red M&Ms in them, 87480 bags with 7 red M&Ms in them, 3645 bags with 8 red M&Ms in them, 90 bags with 9 red M&Ms in them, and 1 bag with red 10 M&Ms in it. (All bags have 10 M&Ms in total.) You pick a bag and eat the first M&M and it's blue. Is the second one more likely to be red?
 
  • #43
CRGreathouse said:
Alternate assumption: there are 3486784401 bags with 0 red M&Ms in them, 3874204890 bags with 1 red M&M in them, 1937102445 bags with 2 red M&Ms in them, 573956280 bags with red 3 M&Ms in them, 111602610 bags with 4 red M&Ms in them, 14880348 bags with 5 red M&Ms in them, 1377810 bags with 6 red M&Ms in them, 87480 bags with 7 red M&Ms in them, 3645 bags with 8 red M&Ms in them, 90 bags with 9 red M&Ms in them, and 1 bag with red 10 M&Ms in it. (All bags have 10 M&Ms in total.) You eat the first M&M and it's blue. Is the second one more likely to be red?

Yes.
 
  • #44
diggy said:
Just to simplify life -- assume the factory that made (10) M&M's, (1) of which was red. They are put in (2) bags with (5) M&M's in each. You eat your first M&M and its blue.

I assume we all agree on the next M&M being more likely to be red, yes?

Now try the case where the factory makes 20 M&M's of which 2 are red. There are two possibilities: (a) the 2 reds go into one bag or (b) the 2 reds go into separate bags.

Without knowing how the bagging machine works (i.e the probabilities of (a) vs (b)), we've got a kind of Schrodinger's cat scenario where the probability of next being red can either increase or decrease.
 
  • #45
diggy said:
Yes.
Try again.

Before you open the bag, what can you say about the probability of getting a red M&M as the first candy from that bag? (No peeking now!) Does opening the bag but not peeking inside change that number one iota?

Hint: Per CRGreathouse's setup, there are 10 billion bags each containing 10 candies (100 billion candies total). Of these 100 billion candies, 10 billion are red.



Now you draw a blue candy as the first candy from that bag. What is the probability the next candy is red?
 
  • #46
Ah -- so you are saying *if the bags aren't randomly filled (in the i.i.d. sense)* then it's possible that the likelihood of drawing a red goes down once you draw a blue. Yes totally agree.

Edit:
Sorry I thought you were just getting caught up in the bayesian inversion and not accounting for the density of red states increasing as you filtered out the blue-rich bags.
 
Last edited:

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