What Is the Probability That Any Bucket Receives Exactly n Red Balls?

In summary: Thank you!In summary, the conversation discusses the probability of finding exactly n red balls in one selected bucket out of M buckets, given R red balls have been thrown. The formula for this probability is P(X=n)={R choose n}(1/M)^n(1-1/M)^(R-n). However, if the focus is not on a specific bucket but on any bucket, the probability is not simply multiplied by M, as the events are not mutually exclusive. Instead, the total probability can be calculated by taking into account all possible combinations of n balls in buckets, using the formula P(total) = sum from k=1 to min(M,R/n) of (-1)^(k-1)*(M choose k)*
  • #1
paolopiace
10
0
Greetings.
I would need help as follow up to the answers to my http://mathhelpboards.com/basic-probability-statistics-23/prob-red-ball-buckets-binomial-17282-post79735.html#post79735.

After having thrown R red balls over M buckets, the probability that exactly n red balls fall in one, specific, selected bucket is:

\(\displaystyle P(X=n)={R \choose n}\left(\frac{1}{M}\right)^n\left(1-\frac{1}{M}\right)^{R-n}\)

That applies to one, specific, selected bucket among M. That's why 1/M.

But I do not care to pick a specific bucket and look into it. Any bucket may receive n red balls and I need to look into all of them.

So, what is the probability to find n red balls into ANY bucket? If it sufficient to multiply the formula by M?

Thanks for your help!
 
Last edited:
Mathematics news on Phys.org
  • #2
paolopiace said:
Greetings.
I would need help as follow up to the answers to my http://mathhelpboards.com/basic-probability-statistics-23/prob-red-ball-buckets-binomial-17282-post79735.html#post79735.

After having thrown R red balls over M buckets, the probability that exactly n red balls fall in one, specific, selected bucket is:

\(\displaystyle P(X=n)={R \choose n}\left(\frac{1}{M}\right)^n\left(1-\frac{1}{M}\right)^{R-n}\)

That applies to one, specific, selected bucket among M. That's why 1/M.

But I do not care to pick a specific bucket and look into it. Any bucket may receive n red balls and I need to look into all of them.

So, what is the probability to find n red balls into ANY bucket? If it sufficient to multiply the formula by M?

Thanks for your help!

The probability calculated here is just for one bucket. For all buckets, $P_{total}=P_{m1}+P_{m2}+...P_{M}=M\times P$(since the probabilities for each bucket are identical). You can think about it intuitively as: if you don't focus on a particular bucket, the chances of you finding exactly "n-balls" in any bucket should increase $M-times$.
 
Last edited:
  • #3
Arenholt said:
... You can think about it intuitively as: if you don't focus on a particular bucket, the chances of you finding exactly "n-balls" in any bucket should increase $M-times$.

Thank You! It's what I though but I needed confirmation.
 
  • #4
Arenholt said:
The probability calculated here is just for one bucket. For all buckets, $P_{total}=P_{m1}+P_{m2}+...P_{M}=M\times P$(since the probabilities for each bucket are identical)...

Hummm... Are you sure?

So, if I have M=3 buckets and I throw R=2 red balls above them the prob. of finding n=1 red ball in one specific bucket is (from the binomial formula):
P(X=1) = 0.444

Based on what you said, M x P(X=1) = 1.333
This is not a probability.
 
Last edited:
  • #5
paolopiace said:
Hummm... Are you sure?

So, if I have M=3 buckets and I throw R=2 red balls above them the prob. of finding n=1 red ball in one specific bucket is (from the binomial formula):
P(X=1) = 0.444

Based on what you said, M x P(X=1) = 1.333
This is not a probability.

Indeed. It's not true.
That formula only holds if the events are mutually exclusive... but they aren't.
The sum formula for events A and B that are not mutually exclusive is:
$$P(A\cup B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A\cap B)$$

Let's take a closer look at your example, and let's call $P(1)$ the probability we find $n$ balls in bucket $1$ of the $M=3$ buckets. And for instance $P(1 \cup 2)$ is the probability to find $n$ balls in bucket $1$ and/or in bucket $2$. And $P(1\cap 2)$ is the probability to find $n$ balls both in bucket $1$ and in bucket $2$. The very fact that the latter is possible means that the events are not mutually exclusive.
Then it boils down to:
$$
P_{total} = P(1 \cup 2 \cup 3) = P(1) + P(2) + P(3) - P(1\cap 2) - P(1\cap 3) - P(2\cap 3) + P(1\cap 2 \cap 3) \\
= \frac 49 + \frac 49 + \frac 49 - \frac 29 - \frac 29 - \frac 29 + 0 = \frac 69
$$
 
  • #6
I like Serena said:
Indeed. It's not true.

Thank You!
Would you help me with the problem in my original post, here at the top?

I really need that probability.
 
  • #7
paolopiace said:
Hummm... Are you sure?

So, if I have M=3 buckets and I throw R=2 red balls above them the prob. of finding n=1 red ball in one specific bucket is (from the binomial formula):
P(X=1) = 0.444

Based on what you said, M x P(X=1) = 1.333
This is not a probability.

For the given scenario, the formula indeed doesn't hold up. However, I had the doubt if there can only be one bucket with exactly n-balls or are multiple buckets each with n-balls allowed? Because if multiple buckets are allowed then we need to take cases to get the total probability.
 
Last edited:
  • #8
paolopiace said:
Thank You!
Would you help me with the problem in my original post, here at the top?

I really need that probability.

Let's see... we can simplify the formula I just gave for your example a bit:
$$\begin{aligned}P_{total} &= \binom M1 P(1) - \binom M2 P(1 \text{ and } 2) + \binom M 3 P(1 \text{ and } 2 \text{ and } 3) - ... \\
&= \sum_{k=1}^{\min(M,\lfloor R/n \rfloor)} (-1)^{k-1}\binom Mk P(\text{exactly $n$ balls in buckets $1$ up to $k$})
\end{aligned}$$
And the probability to have exactly $n$ balls in buckets $1$ up to $k$ is:
$$\begin{aligned}P(\text{exactly $n$ balls in buckets $1$ up to $k$})
&= \underbrace{\binom Rn \binom {R-n}n ... \binom{R-(k-1)n}n}_{k\text{ factors}} \left(\frac 1M\right)^{kn} \left(1-\frac 1M\right)^{R-kn} \\
&= \prod_{i=0}^{k-1}\binom{R-in}n \left(\frac 1M\right)^{kn} \left(1-\frac 1M\right)^{R-kn}
\end{aligned}$$
 
  • #9
Wow... I see. So, let's put the problem (the very 1st post of this thread) a bit differently.

Instead of asking "what is the probability to find n red balls into ANY bucket", I ask:

"What is the probability to find exactly n red balls into at least one bucket".

Here is the train of thoughts:

The prob. that one specific bucket has exactly n red balls is: P(X=n)

The prob. that one specific bucket has anything other than n red balls is: 1-P(X=n)

The prob. that all M buckets have anything other than n red balls is: (1-P(X=n))^M

The prob. that at least one bucket has exactly n red balls is: 1- (1-P(X=n))^M

Is this correct?
 
  • #10
paolopiace said:
Wow... I see. So, let's put the problem (the very 1st post of this thread) a bit differently.

Instead of asking "what is the probability to find n red balls into ANY bucket", I ask:

"What is the probability to find exactly n red balls into at least one bucket".

Erm... what's the difference?
The formula I gave is the probability we have at least one bucket with $n$ balls.
Here is the train of thoughts:

The prob. that one specific bucket has exactly n red balls is: P(X=n)

The prob. that one specific bucket has anything other than n red balls is: 1-P(X=n)

The prob. that all M buckets have anything other than n red balls is: (1-P(X=n))^M

The prob. that at least one bucket has exactly n red balls is: 1- (1-P(X=n))^M

Is this correct?

Not quite.
The problem is that once we know a specific bucket does not have $n$ balls, the probabilities for the other buckets change.
 
  • #11
I like Serena said:
...
And the probability to have exactly $n$ balls in buckets $1$ up to $k$ is: ...

Thank You. That's nice.
But it's not what the original problem asks. It states and asks:

After having thrown R balls over M buckets, the probability that exactly n<R balls fall in one specific bucket is:
$$P(X=n)={R \choose n}\left(\frac{1}{M}\right)^n\left(1-\frac{1}{M}\right)^{R-n}$$
That applies to one, specific, selected bucket among M. That's why 1/M.

But I do not care to pick a specific bucket and look into it. Any one bucket may receive n balls and I need to look into all of them.

So, what is the probability that at least one bucket, anyone among M, will contain n balls after having thrown R above the buckets?
 
Last edited:
  • #12
paolopiace said:
Thank You. That's nice.
But it's not what the original problem asks. It states and asks:

After having thrown R balls over M buckets, the probability that exactly n<R balls fall in one specific bucket is:
$$P(X=n)={R \choose n}\left(\frac{1}{M}\right)^n\left(1-\frac{1}{M}\right)^{R-n}$$
That applies to one, specific, selected bucket among M. That's why 1/M.

But I do not care to pick a specific bucket and look into it. Any one bucket may receive n balls and I need to look into all of them.

So, what is the probability that at least one bucket, anyone among M, will contain n balls after having thrown R above the buckets?

That's the $P_{total}$ that I mentioned in that same http://mathhelpboards.com/basic-probability-statistics-23/binomial-probability-again-18881-post87939.html#post87939.
That is:
\[ P_{total} = P(\text{at least 1 bucket of the M buckets has n balls in it})\]
 

Related to What Is the Probability That Any Bucket Receives Exactly n Red Balls?

What is binomial probability?

Binomial probability is a statistical concept that calculates the likelihood of a certain number of successes in a fixed number of trials. It is used to analyze situations where there are only two possible outcomes, such as success or failure.

What is the formula for binomial probability?

The formula for binomial probability is P(x) = nCx * p^x * q^(n-x), where n is the number of trials, x is the number of successes, p is the probability of success, and q is the probability of failure.

What are some real-life examples of binomial probability?

Some real-life examples of binomial probability include flipping a coin, rolling a die, and conducting medical trials to determine the effectiveness of a new drug.

How is binomial probability different from normal distribution?

Binomial probability deals with discrete data and has a fixed number of trials, while normal distribution deals with continuous data and has an infinite number of possible outcomes. Additionally, binomial probability is based on a fixed probability of success, while normal distribution is based on a mean and standard deviation.

How is binomial probability used in hypothesis testing?

Binomial probability is used in hypothesis testing to determine the likelihood of obtaining a certain result if the null hypothesis is true. This allows researchers to determine if their results are statistically significant and reject or accept the null hypothesis accordingly.

Similar threads

  • General Math
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • Set Theory, Logic, Probability, Statistics
Replies
1
Views
739
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
11
Views
2K
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • Set Theory, Logic, Probability, Statistics
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • Set Theory, Logic, Probability, Statistics
Replies
3
Views
916
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • Set Theory, Logic, Probability, Statistics
Replies
1
Views
2K
Back
Top