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- Thread starter Dr Chaos
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- #1

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- #2

CompuChip

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It is simply a binomial distribution, letting X = the number of winners in the 6 that you buy, you want to calculate P(X >= 1 | n = 6, p = 1/6)

- #3

CRGreathouse

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My question is; If you buy six bars, what is the chances that at least one will be a winner?

One minus the chance that none are winners.

- #4

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6 in 1 chance?

I guess you mean 1 in 6 chance.

- #5

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0.665102023319615912208504801098..........

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