Probability of Momentum in Infinite Well

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the probability density of the ground state in an infinite square well, specifically focusing on the momentum aspect of the wave function.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to derive momentum from the wave function and considers integrating the probability density, but questions the validity of their approach due to limits of integration.
  • Some participants clarify that the probability density function serves as the integrand, suggesting that integration may not be necessary.
  • Others express confusion regarding the implications of the ground state wave function shape on momentum, questioning whether the momentum would indeed be smaller in regions of higher probability density.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants offering clarifications and exploring different interpretations of the problem. There is no explicit consensus, but guidance has been provided regarding the nature of the probability density function.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating assumptions about the behavior of momentum in the context of quantum mechanics, particularly in relation to the infinite square well potential and the implications of the wave function's shape.

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Homework Statement



Need to find the probability density of a ground state in an infinite square well.

Homework Equations



Ground State psi(x) = Asin(Bx), don't want to look up the constants, don't think they are relevant anyway.

The Attempt at a Solution



Took the derivative of psi(x) with respect to x to get momentum, times h/(2*pi*i).

Then tried to integrate psi*psi, but before I did that I stopped myself, because taking the limits of integration to be infinity and negative infinity like for the position probability, I'd end up with 0. Since I get cos(x)^2 = 1 - sin(x)^2

Sin(x)^2 integrated from -inf. to inf. = 1, so this would be 0. That doesn't make sense, so it's clearly not the way to go about it.

Should I go a step deeper and just try to solve Schrödinger's equation for momentum? Would that mean I have to take d/dx for the whole thing and then solve it? This problem is harder than I thought it would be.
 
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probability density function is the integrand! since the problem is asking you to find this integrand, you don't need to integrate!

Also, when you do integrate the probability density function of momentum, you find that <p>= 0 (as you claimed) and this is perfectly fine. Since, in infinite square well potential, you would expect <x> to be constant! (to wit: <p> = m d<x>/dt)
 
I thought it was only constant in the classical case? Since the ground state is an arc (half a sine wave), there's more probability in the middle, so wouldn't the momentum be smaller in the middle?
 
Wait, you're just using the expectation value, which isn't what I am trying to find at all.
 

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