Problem from Intro to Quantum Mechanics by Griffiths (I know near nothing)

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion revolves around solving a quantum mechanics problem from Griffiths, specifically finding the normalization constant A for the wave function \(\Psi (x, t) = A e^{-a[(m x^2/\hbar) + i t]}\). The user, WraithM, initially struggles with taking the complex conjugate and integrating the resulting Gaussian function. The solution involves using the Gaussian integral formula, leading to the conclusion that \(A = \left(\frac{2 a m}{\pi \hbar}\right)^{1/4}\) after normalizing the wave function.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics concepts, particularly wave functions.
  • Familiarity with Schrödinger's equation and normalization conditions.
  • Knowledge of Gaussian integrals and their properties.
  • Basic skills in complex numbers and their conjugates.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study Gaussian integrals and their applications in quantum mechanics.
  • Learn about wave function normalization techniques in quantum mechanics.
  • Explore the properties of complex numbers and their conjugates.
  • Review the Schrödinger equation and its implications in quantum mechanics.
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for students beginning their journey in quantum mechanics, particularly those tackling wave functions and normalization problems. It is also useful for educators and tutors looking for common student challenges in quantum mechanics.

WraithM
Messages
32
Reaction score
0
Okay, here's a quantum mechanics problem. I am just starting with quantum, so I have no idea about this stuff. I am requesting guidence or a push in the right direction, not nessicarily a complete answer, please. Also, I don't know if this fits into the Advanced Physics help forum. I've never posted on the homework help forum before. If this is too simple, please let me know.

Homework Statement



A particle of mass m is in the state

\Psi (x, t) = A e^{-a[(m x^2/\hbar) + i t]},

where A and a are positive real constants.

(a) Find A.


Homework Equations



Shroedinger's equation?

\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \mid \psi \mid ^2 dx = 1

Maybe?

The Attempt at a Solution



I guess my plan was to take the complex conjugate of the wave function there, multiply them, and then intregrate with \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \mid \psi \mid ^2 dx = 1 to get the answer for A. I ran into troubles along the way, and I have some theories as to where I messed up.

Firstly, I think I took the complex conjugate incorrectly. My knowledge of complex numbers is extremely rusty :( I haven't really studied that since perhaps my sophomore year in high school...

Here's what I said it was:

\Psi^* = A e^{-a[(m x^2/\hbar) - i t]}

So, assuming I did that correctly (which is not a very good assumption :frown:), I moved foreward.

\mid \psi \mid ^2 = A^2 e^{-2 a m x^2/\hbar}

Okay, and that's a gaussian, so the integration is tricky. I assume that this is not the proper way of moving foreward because when I tried to think of how to do the integration I got confused.

Does anybody have a good idea of how to move foreward with this problem?

-WraithM
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Can you integrate a gaussian ? If not, then use a table of integrals. I'm sure you can find one in every QM book.
 
The integral is in the answer of an "error function" which I frankly have no idea how to deal with, but I like your idea of a table of integrals. I have a really solid table of integrals with 728 of them :D I guess I'll try that.

If anybody knows how to do the integral

\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} A^2 e^{-2 a m x^2/\hbar} dx

it would help me very much.
 
There's no 'error' function answer to this one, because the limits are + and - infinity. The solving of the integral

\int_{-\infty} ^{+\infty} e^{-x^2} {} dx

is one of the oldest tricks in any analysis book. However, I'm sure you can find its answer in your QM book.
 
WraithM said:
The integral is in the answer of an "error function" which I frankly have no idea how to deal with, but I like your idea of a table of integrals. I have a really solid table of integrals with 728 of them :D I guess I'll try that.

If anybody knows how to do the integral

\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} A^2 e^{-2 a m x^2/\hbar} dx

it would help me very much.

use substitution and then:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gaussian_integral#Brief_proof
 
Win!

\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-b^2 x^2} dx = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2b}

My 728 best friends never fail.

\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} A^2 e^{-2 a m x^2/\hbar} dx = 2 \int_{0}^{\infty} A^2 e^{-2 a m x^2/\hbar} dx

So,

b^2 = 2 a m/\hbar

And

2 \int_{0}^{\infty} A^2 e^{-2 a m x^2/\hbar} dx = A^2 \sqrt{\frac{\pi \hbar}{2 a m}} = 1

Therefore,

A = (\frac{2 a m}{\pi \hbar})^{1/4}

My math is rusty :( I'm not going to do well figuring out this quantum mechanics, lol.

Thank you very much for the help!
 

Similar threads

Replies
46
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
793
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
24
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
4K
Replies
3
Views
2K