Problem related to signed measure

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The discussion revolves around demonstrating the existence of a set E with finite measure such that the difference between the integrals of f over E and X is less than any given epsilon. A function v(A) is defined as the integral of f over a set A, which is established as a signed measure. Participants question whether the property of signed measures can guarantee the existence of such a set E without the assumption of sigma-finiteness, as the original problem does not mention it. There is uncertainty regarding the implications of assuming sigma-finiteness on the solution approach. The conversation emphasizes the need for clarity on these measure-theoretic properties to resolve the problem effectively.
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Homework Statement


(X,S,u) a measure space and f is in L1.
Show that for any e>0, there exists a set E with u(E)<+infinity such that
| \int_{E} fdu - \int_{X} fdu |&lt;e


The Attempt at a Solution


we can define a function
v(A)=\int_{A}fdu
It is a well known result that v(A) is in fact a signed measure.

We can somehow use the property of signed measures to show that there always exist a E such that |v(E)-v(X)|<e?
 
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Don't you need sigma-finiteness here or something of the sort?
 
The question is as is, there is no mention of sigma finiteness. My attempt at the solution could be completely wrong.
 
Let's suppose it is sigma finite? then what?
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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