Graduate Is Wolfram's Answer to the Integral Problem Wrong?

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The discussion centers on the challenges of solving a specific integral using the Sokhotski–Plemelj theorem and Taylor expansion, with participants noting that WolframAlpha indicates the integral does not converge. Suggestions include splitting the integral into two parts and substituting variables to relate it to the Gamma function. However, there are disagreements about WolframAlpha's conclusions, particularly regarding specific parameter values that could affect convergence. Some argue that the tool does not account for all potential scenarios, such as when parameters are zero or multiples of 2π. Ultimately, there is skepticism about the reliability of WolframAlpha's assessment of convergence in this context.
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TL;DR
i had been trying to solve $$\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{iax}-e^{-ibx}}{x^2} dx$$ with mathematica but the result was "Integral does not converge''
I had been trying to aplly the sokhotski–plemelj theorem but with no success.
Moreover i replaced exponential function with taylor expansion but i still can not solve the integral.
thanks
 
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I would split it into two integrals, substitute ##x## by ##\dfrac{1}{x}## and look whether I can get it to look like the Gamma function.
$$
\int_0^\infty x^{z-1}e^{-\mu x} = \dfrac{\Gamma(z)}{\mu^z} \; , \;Re(z),Re(\mu) > 0
$$
$$
\int_0^\infty x^{z-1}e^{- i \mu x} = \dfrac{\Gamma(z)}{( i \mu)^z} \; , \;0<Re(z)<1,\mu > 0
$$
 
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fresh_42 said:
I would split it into two integrals, substitute ##x## by ##\dfrac{1}{x}## and look whether I can get it to look like the Gamma function.
$$
\int_0^\infty x^{z-1}e^{-\mu x} = \dfrac{\Gamma(z)}{\mu^z} \; , \;Re(z),Re(\mu) > 0
$$
$$
\int_0^\infty x^{z-1}e^{- i \mu x} = \dfrac{\Gamma(z)}{( i \mu)^z} \; , \;0<Re(z)<1,\mu > 0
$$
i end up $$\int_0^{\infty} ( e^{ia/x}-e^{-ib/x})dx$$ which is something different from gamma function
 
I do not understand what is point simplifying it if it is already clear, that the integral does not converge. Even ##\int_0^1(dx*\frac{1}{x^2})## does not converge.
 
olgerm said:
I do not understand what is point simplifying it if it is already clear, that the integral does not converge. Even ##\int_0^1(dx*\frac{1}{x^2})## does not converge.
Wolfram Alpha is a good hint, but not a proof. You cannot rule out interpretation errors. E.g. it does converge for ##a=b=0## and Wolfram Alpha didn't consider the possible values of the constants. And what if ##a,b## are multiples of ##2\pi\,?##
 
Does Wolfram give answers without specific numerical inputs? I remember having trouble trying it recently. Each constant generates a full parameter space.
 
It only says "does not converge", which is wrong for a=b=0.
 
fresh_42 said:
It only says "does not converge", which is wrong for a=b=0.
Maybe it is Wolfram's answer which doesn't converge ;).
 

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