Problem understanding Wigner's 1939 paper

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the understanding of invariance of subspaces with respect to linear operators, specifically in the context of Wigner's 1939 paper. Participants explore the implications of invariance under linear operators and their inverses, particularly in relation to Lorentz transformations.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether a subspace A, invariant with respect to a linear operator, is also invariant with respect to the inverse operator.
  • Another participant acknowledges a misunderstanding and clarifies that if the subspace is invariant under all Lorentz transformations, it must also be invariant for the inverse transformation.
  • A participant asserts that if the linear operator is invertible and maps A onto A, then invariance holds.
  • It is noted that in the case of infinite dimensional spaces, the definition of invariance may not necessarily hold without additional assumptions.
  • Another participant agrees that more assumptions are needed in infinite dimensions and corrects their earlier statement accordingly.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the conditions under which invariance holds, particularly in infinite dimensional spaces. There is no consensus on the implications of these conditions.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the need for additional assumptions in infinite dimensional spaces to support claims about invariance, indicating that the discussion is limited by these considerations.

facenian
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if subspace A is invariant with respect to a linear operator, is it true that A is invariant with respect to the inverse operator? if not I think threre is a mistake in Wigners paper in "B. Some immediate simplifications" page 13
 
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I'm sorry it's my mistake, I didn't read well. At the beginning of the paragraph he says that the subspace is invariant under all lorentz transformation then it must be invariant for [itex]D(L^{-1})[/itex] too
 
facenian said:
if subspace A is invariant with respect to a linear operator, is it true that A is invariant with respect to the inverse operator?
Yes, if the linear operator is invertible and maps A onto A.
 
Last edited:
A. Neumaier said:
Yes, if the linear operator is invertible (and hence maps A onto A).
If invariant is defined as ##T(A) \subseteq A##, then I think this isn't necessarily true in an infinite dimensional space.
 
Samy_A said:
If invariant is defined as ##T(A) \subseteq A##, then I think this isn't necessarily true in an infinite dimensional space.
Indeed. In infinite dimensions you need to assume more. I corrected my statement accordingly.
 

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