# Problem with derivation of phase for 1-fermion state

1. Jul 27, 2014

### ChrisVer

Take a look at the attachment, my question is obvious from the colored points. The attachment is from:
"state-of-the-art formulas for helicity amplitude calculation and all that
(version 2.4)
PART Ia. Spherical-Vector Method for Helicity Amplitudes
(FORMALISM)
Ken-ichi Hikasa"

I think there is a problem with the $(-1)$ term. If

$u^{1}_{h}(p)= (-1)^{h-\frac{1}{2}} e^{2ih \bar{\phi}} u^{2}_{h}(p)$

Then I think when he did the substitution to my underlined step there should be a:

$(-1)^{\frac{1}{2}-h}$ instead... At first I thought I had derived wrong the particle 1-2 spinors relation, but my idea is also boosted from the fact he changes the sign of the exponential.

The same is also true for the antiparticle spinor $v$ (blue)

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2. Aug 4, 2014