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Problem with derivation of phase for 1-fermion state

  1. Jul 27, 2014 #1


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    Gold Member

    Take a look at the attachment, my question is obvious from the colored points. The attachment is from:
    "state-of-the-art formulas for helicity amplitude calculation and all that
    (version 2.4)
    PART Ia. Spherical-Vector Method for Helicity Amplitudes
    Ken-ichi Hikasa"

    I think there is a problem with the [itex](-1)[/itex] term. If

    [itex]u^{1}_{h}(p)= (-1)^{h-\frac{1}{2}} e^{2ih \bar{\phi}} u^{2}_{h}(p)[/itex]

    Then I think when he did the substitution to my underlined step there should be a:

    [itex](-1)^{\frac{1}{2}-h} [/itex] instead... At first I thought I had derived wrong the particle 1-2 spinors relation, but my idea is also boosted from the fact he changes the sign of the exponential.

    The same is also true for the antiparticle spinor [itex]v[/itex] (blue)

    Attached Files:

  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 4, 2014 #2
    I'm sorry you are not generating any responses at the moment. Is there any additional information you can share with us? Any new findings?
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