Problem with polar coordinates

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the application of polar coordinates in physics, specifically in deriving equations of motion. The user, Gamdschiee, presents equations involving radial and angular components, including the acceleration vector \ddot{\vec r} and its relation to gravitational forces. Key equations discussed include \ddot{x} = (\ddot{r}-r\dot{\phi}^2)\cos \phi - (2\dot{r}\dot{\phi}+r\ddot{\phi})\sin \phi and the condition 2\dot{r}\dot{\phi}+r\ddot{\phi}=0, which is questioned for its validity. The conversation highlights the importance of differentiating the Cartesian coordinates derived from polar coordinates.

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  • Understanding of polar coordinates and their representation in vector form
  • Knowledge of calculus, specifically differentiation and second derivatives
  • Familiarity with Newton's laws of motion and gravitational forces
  • Basic understanding of trigonometric functions and their derivatives
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  • Investigate the conditions under which the equation 2\dot{r}\dot{\phi}+r\ddot{\phi}=0 holds true
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Gamdschiee
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Hello,

I have a question about polar coordinates.

It is
\vec r = \begin{pmatrix}r cos\phi \\ rsin\phi \\ z\end{pmatrix}=r\cdot \vec e_r + z\cdot \vec e_z
and than is
\ddot{\vec r} = (\ddot{r}-r\dot{\phi}^2)\vec e_r + (r\ddot{\phi} +2\dot{r}\dot{\phi})\vec e_{\phi} + \ddot{z}\vec e_z

The following I got on the exercise
m\cdot \begin{pmatrix}\ddot{x} \\ \ddot{y} \\ \ddot{z}\end{pmatrix} =m\cdot \begin{pmatrix}0 \\ 0 \\ -g\end{pmatrix} + 2\lambda \begin{pmatrix}-x\cdot cos^2 \alpha \\ -y\cdot cos^2 \alpha \\ z\cdot sin^2 \alpha\end{pmatrix}

I have three components now. One component is an equation(I, II and III).

I also got following hint:
I:\cos\phi + III: \tan\alpha
z=\frac{r}{\tan \alpha}

When I use this hints, I got this:
\frac{\ddot x}{\cos \phi}+\frac{\ddot{z}}{\tan \alpha} = -\frac{g}{\tan \alpha}

Until this point, it should be all clear to me, I guess.

Apprently you will get following, if you go further:
\frac{(\ddot{r}-r\dot{\phi}^2)cos \phi-(2\dot{r}\dot{\phi}+r\ddot{\phi})\sin \phi}{\cos \phi}+\frac{\ddot{r}}{\tan^2 \alpha}+ \frac{g}{\tan \alpha}=0

My Questions:
1. Why is \ddot{x} = (\ddot{r}-r\dot{\phi}^2)cos \phi-(2\dot{r}\dot{\phi}+r\ddot{\phi})\sin \phi, apperently?2. And why is 2\dot{r}\dot{\phi}+r\ddot{\phi}=0?

I hope someone can help me with this case.

Kind regards,
Gamdschiee
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You get the first expression if you differentiate x = r cos(ϕ) twice.
Where does the second equation come from? It is not true in general.
 
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