Product of two complex numbers = 0

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that for two complex numbers z and w, if their product zw equals zero, then either z or w must be zero. The participants explore the use of exponential polar form, represented as z = re^{iθ} and w = qe^{iφ}. The conclusion is that since e^{i(θ + φ)} cannot be zero, it follows that either r = 0 or q = 0, leading to the definitive result that either z = 0 or w = 0, based on the zero-product property.

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  • Understanding of complex numbers and their properties
  • Familiarity with exponential polar form of complex numbers
  • Knowledge of the zero-product property in algebra
  • Basic concepts of absolute values in complex analysis
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  • Study the properties of complex numbers, focusing on their polar representation
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  • Investigate the implications of complex exponentials in mathematical proofs
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  • #31
vela said:
Actually, it isn't, which is Whovian's point. Since we're trying to prove that there are no zero divisors, so we can't assume that just because e≠0, then ze=0 implies z=0 because e might be a zero divisor. You should show how to get rid of the complex exponential, e.g. take the modulus or multiply by e-iθ.

Now I agree that the OP was likely using circular reasoning while the rest of us glossed over it, thinking "Obviously you can get rid of the exponential." It was a good catch by Whovian.
so

zw = 0
re^{i\theta} \times qe^{i\phi} = 0
rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)} = 0
e^{i(\theta + \phi)} \not= 0
\frac{rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)}}{e^{i(\theta + \phi)}} = \frac{0}{e^{i(\theta + \phi)}}
rq = 0
\therefore r=0 or q=0
\therefore z = 0 or w = 0

Um, I can't find anything at all in our course material about taking the modulus of a complex exponential. According to WolframAlpha |e^{i\theta}| = 1 assuming \theta is real? So, uh...

zw = 0
re^{i\theta} \times qe^{i\phi} = 0
rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)} = 0
|rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)}| = |0|
rq = 0
\therefore r=0 or q=0
\therefore z = 0 or w = 0

Both of these seem okay I think?
 
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  • #32
vesu said:
According to WolframAlpha |e^{i\theta}| = 1 assuming \theta is real?

True, but you can see fairly easily again that this claim is equivalent with claiming that |zw|= |z| |w|. Maybe you can somehow convince yourself (without resorting to wolframalpha) that this is true?
 
  • #33
vela said:
Actually, it isn't, which is Whovian's point. Since we're trying to prove that there are no zero divisors, so we can't assume that just because e≠0, then ze=0 implies z=0 because e might be a zero divisor. You should show how to get rid of the complex exponential, e.g. take the modulus or multiply by e-iθ.

Now I agree that the OP was likely using circular reasoning while the rest of us glossed over it, thinking "Obviously you can get rid of the exponential." It was a good catch by Whovian.

What is a "zero divisor?"
 
  • #35
clamtrox said:

Ah ok. So we can't assume a priori that the set of complex numbers possesses the property that the product of two of its non-zero elements must be non-zero.

I had no idea, to be honest.
 

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