vesu
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sovela said:Actually, it isn't, which is Whovian's point. Since we're trying to prove that there are no zero divisors, so we can't assume that just because eiθ≠0, then zeiθ=0 implies z=0 because eiθ might be a zero divisor. You should show how to get rid of the complex exponential, e.g. take the modulus or multiply by e-iθ.
Now I agree that the OP was likely using circular reasoning while the rest of us glossed over it, thinking "Obviously you can get rid of the exponential." It was a good catch by Whovian.
zw = 0
re^{i\theta} \times qe^{i\phi} = 0
rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)} = 0
e^{i(\theta + \phi)} \not= 0
\frac{rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)}}{e^{i(\theta + \phi)}} = \frac{0}{e^{i(\theta + \phi)}}
rq = 0
\therefore r=0 or q=0
\therefore z = 0 or w = 0
Um, I can't find anything at all in our course material about taking the modulus of a complex exponential. According to WolframAlpha |e^{i\theta}| = 1 assuming \theta is real? So, uh...
zw = 0
re^{i\theta} \times qe^{i\phi} = 0
rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)} = 0
|rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)}| = |0|
rq = 0
\therefore r=0 or q=0
\therefore z = 0 or w = 0
Both of these seem okay I think?