Product of two complex numbers = 0

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves two complex numbers, z and w, with the condition that their product zw equals zero. The task is to demonstrate that either z or w must be zero. The discussion includes hints to use exponential polar form for the complex numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of expressing complex numbers in polar form and the conditions under which their product equals zero. There are attempts to clarify the reasoning behind the zero-product property and its application to complex numbers.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring various interpretations of the problem. Some have provided hints and alternative approaches, while others express confusion about the reasoning and the necessity of using exponential polar form.

Contextual Notes

There are references to potential circular reasoning in the arguments presented, as well as discussions about the properties of complex numbers and their polar representations. Participants are also considering the implications of absolute values in their reasoning.

  • #31
vela said:
Actually, it isn't, which is Whovian's point. Since we're trying to prove that there are no zero divisors, so we can't assume that just because e≠0, then ze=0 implies z=0 because e might be a zero divisor. You should show how to get rid of the complex exponential, e.g. take the modulus or multiply by e-iθ.

Now I agree that the OP was likely using circular reasoning while the rest of us glossed over it, thinking "Obviously you can get rid of the exponential." It was a good catch by Whovian.
so

zw = 0
re^{i\theta} \times qe^{i\phi} = 0
rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)} = 0
e^{i(\theta + \phi)} \not= 0
\frac{rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)}}{e^{i(\theta + \phi)}} = \frac{0}{e^{i(\theta + \phi)}}
rq = 0
\therefore r=0 or q=0
\therefore z = 0 or w = 0

Um, I can't find anything at all in our course material about taking the modulus of a complex exponential. According to WolframAlpha |e^{i\theta}| = 1 assuming \theta is real? So, uh...

zw = 0
re^{i\theta} \times qe^{i\phi} = 0
rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)} = 0
|rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)}| = |0|
rq = 0
\therefore r=0 or q=0
\therefore z = 0 or w = 0

Both of these seem okay I think?
 
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  • #32
vesu said:
According to WolframAlpha |e^{i\theta}| = 1 assuming \theta is real?

True, but you can see fairly easily again that this claim is equivalent with claiming that |zw|= |z| |w|. Maybe you can somehow convince yourself (without resorting to wolframalpha) that this is true?
 
  • #33
vela said:
Actually, it isn't, which is Whovian's point. Since we're trying to prove that there are no zero divisors, so we can't assume that just because e≠0, then ze=0 implies z=0 because e might be a zero divisor. You should show how to get rid of the complex exponential, e.g. take the modulus or multiply by e-iθ.

Now I agree that the OP was likely using circular reasoning while the rest of us glossed over it, thinking "Obviously you can get rid of the exponential." It was a good catch by Whovian.

What is a "zero divisor?"
 
  • #35
clamtrox said:

Ah ok. So we can't assume a priori that the set of complex numbers possesses the property that the product of two of its non-zero elements must be non-zero.

I had no idea, to be honest.
 

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