As rochfor1 said, that is a perfectly good proof and simpler than "proof by induction".
But since you ask, here goes:
If n= 1, then [itex]n^2+ n= 1^2+ 1= 2[/itex] which is even.
Now, suppose that [itex]k^2+ k[/itex] is even and look at [itex](k+1)^2+ (k+1)[/itex]
[itex](k+1)^2+ (k+1)= k^2+ 2k+ 1+ k+ 1[/itex][itex]= (k^2+ 2k)+ 2k+ 2[/itex]. By the induction hypothesis, [itex]k^2+ k[/itex] is even and so [itex]k^2+ k= 2m[/itex] for some integer m (that is the definition of "even") so [itex](k+1)^2+ (k+1)= (k^2+ 2k)+ 2k+ 2[/itex][itex]= 2m+ 2k+ 2= 2(m+k+1)[/itex]. Since that is "2 times an integer", it is even.
Having proved that the statement is true for 1 and that "if it is true for k, it is true for k+1", by induction, it is true for all positive integers.
Yet a third way: If n is a positive integer, it is either even or odd.
case 1: n is even. Then n= 2m for some integer m. [itex]n^2= 4m^2[/itex] so [itex]n^2+ n= 4m^2+ 2m= 2(m^2+ m)[/itex]. Since that is 2 times an integer, it is even.
case 2: n is odd. Then n= 2m+ 1 for some integer m. [itex]n^2= (2m+1)^2= 4m^2+ 4m+ 1[/itex] so [itex]n^2+ n= 4m^2+ 4m+ 1+ 2m+ 1[/itex][itex]= 4m^2+ 6m+ 2= 2(2m^2+ 3m+ 1)[/itex]. Again that is 2 times an integer and so is even.