Proof: Basis Representation Theorem

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buffordboy23
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I had a question about the following theorem.

Basis Representation Theorem: Let [tex]k[/tex] be any integer larger than 1. Then, for each positive integer [tex]n[/tex], there exists a representation

[tex]n = a_{0}k^{s} + a_{1}k^{s-1} + ... + a_{s}[/tex]

where [tex]a_{0} \neq 0[/tex], and where each [tex]a_{i}[/tex] is nonnegative and less than [tex]k[/tex]. Furthermore, this representation of [tex]n[/tex] is unique; it is called the representation of [tex]n[/tex] to base [tex]k[/tex].


Proof: Let [tex]b_{k}\left(n\right)[/tex] denote the number of representations of [tex]n[/tex] to the base [tex]k[/tex]. We must show that [tex]b_{k}\left(n\right)[/tex] always equals 1.

Suppose that

[tex]n = a_{0}k^{s} + a_{1}k^{s-1} + ... + a_{s-t}k^{t}[/tex]

where neither [tex]a_{0}[/tex] nor [tex]a_{s-t}[/tex] equals zero. Then

[tex]n - 1 = a_{0}k^{s} + a_{1}k^{s-1} + ... + a_{s-t}k^{t} - 1 = a_{0}k^{s} + a_{1}k^{s-1} + ... + \left(a_{s-t} - 1\right)k^{t} + k^{t} - 1 = a_{0}k^{s} + a_{1}k^{s-1} + ... + \left(a_{s-t} - 1\right)k^{t} + \sum_{j=0}^{t-1} \left(k - 1\right)k^{t}[/tex]

Thus we see that for each representation of [tex]n[/tex] to the base [tex]k[/tex], we can find a representation of [tex]n-1[/tex]. Consequently,

[tex]b_{k}\left(n\right) \leq b_{k}\left(n-1\right)[/tex]


Question: In the previous line, why is there a "less than or equal to" sign rather than an "equal" or "greater than or equal to" sign?
 
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buffordboy23 said:
Thus we see that for each representation of [tex]n[/tex] to the base [tex]k[/tex], we can find a representation of [tex]n-1[/tex]. Consequently,

[tex]b_{k}\left(n\right) \leq b_{k}\left(n-1\right)[/tex]


Question: In the previous line, why is there a "less than or equal to" sign rather than an "equal" or "greater than or equal to" sign?

Each b_k representation has at least one associated b_k-1 representation, but there may be b_k-1 representations we don't know about. If there were U >= 0 such unknown representations (in fact U = 0, but we don't know that), then b_k + U = b_k-1, so b_k <= b_k-1.
 
Thanks CRGreathouse.

This is clear now. When first reading the proof, it seemed obvious that U = 0, but this was the flaw in my thinking. So we could use the "equals" sign but only if we first show that U = 0, which is more work than is necessary.
 
Thanks so much! This was really puzzling me too.