Proof by Induction Question on Determinants and Eigenvalues

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Abuda
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Thanks, although I still haven't managed to factorise the expression although I did type it up in LaTeX!

Homework Statement



Prove by induction that the following statement is true for all positive integers n.

If [itex]\lambda[/itex] is an Eigenvalue of the square matrix [itex]A[/itex], then [itex]\lambda^n[/itex] is an eigenvalue of the matrix [itex]A^n[/itex]

Homework Equations



I think the relevant equations are:

[tex]\det(A-\lambda I)=0[/tex]

(where I is an identity matrix)

[tex]\det(AB)=\det(A)\det(B)[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



So, in mathematical terms I converted the question into the proposition p(n). I got,

[tex]p(n):\det(A^n - \lambda^nI) = 0[/tex]

Now I assumed that p(n) is true for some value k, so I got,

[tex]p(k):\det(A^k - \lambda^kI) = 0[/tex]

I know that p(1) is true so all I need to do is prove that p(k)=>p(k+1)

So I need to show that [itex]\det(A^{k+1} - \lambda^{k+1}I) = 0[/itex] by using the assumption.

I tried a couple of things here that got me no where. I multiplied both sides of the assumption by det(A) and got:
[tex]\det(A^{k+1} - A\lambda^k I) = 0[/tex]

But I saw no continuation. I also tried [itex]A^n=PD^nP^{-1}[/itex] and got something incredibly messy but it didnt work for me.

Thanks for all help in advance.
 
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I edited the question to make it readable as you suggested tiny-tim! And thanks for the welcome. But I'm still confused due to my being not able to factorise it :S
 
Abuda said:
I edited the question to make it readable as you suggested tiny-tim! And thanks for the welcome. But I'm still confused due to my being not able to factorise it :S

You are probably better off doing this without the determinants. If x is an eigenvector of A with eigenvalue lambda, then Ax=(lambda)x. Try doing induction with that definition.
 
Dick said:
You are probably better off doing this without the determinants. If x is an eigenvector of A with eigenvalue lambda, then Ax=(lambda)x. Try doing induction with that definition.
Thanks for the simple answer Dick! I think I got the answer. I got:

[tex]P(n): A^nx=\lambda^n x[/tex]

P(1) is true

Assume P(k) is true.

[tex]P(k): A^kx=\lambda^k x[/tex]

Multiplying both sides of p(k) by A yields:

[tex]A^{k+1}x=\lambda^{k}Ax[/tex]

Now we sub in [itex]Ax=\lambda x[/itex] from the definition of eigenvalues.

[tex]A^{k+1}x=\lambda^{k+1}x[/tex]

Therefore, p(k) implies p(k+1) and hence p(n) is true for all n. It seems that I spent a lot of time on the method using the determinant approach but I realize now that the determinant approach couldn't have worked easily as the substitution of Ax=lambda x couldn't have been carried out...Thanks heaps Physics Forums. Its a pleasure to have joined your website!
Alex
 
tiny-tim said:
just for the record, my idea was An - Ln = (An-1 + An-2L + … + Ln-1)(A - L) :wink:

Oh Yeah! Because we know that Det(AB)=Det(A)Det(B) and Det(A-L)=0 we can prove it directly without induction using the determinant approach. Great idea. I tried to factorize it briefly before I posted the question but I didnt even know the rule you posted so I had no success!..Thanks again
Alex
 
Hi Alex! :smile:
Abuda said:
… I didnt even know the rule you posted …

oooh, in that case for future possible use you also need to learn …

An + Ln = (An-1 - An-2L + … - ALn-1 + Ln-1)(A - L)

(with alternating + and - signs, and it only works for odd n :wink:)

of course, these work for ordinary numbers also
 
tiny-tim said:
Hi Alex! :smile:


oooh, in that case for future possible use you also need to learn …

An + Ln = (An-1 - An-2L + … - ALn-1 + Ln-1)(A - L)

(with alternating + and - signs, and it only works for odd n :wink:)

of course, these work for ordinary numbers also

Thanks Tim, Excellent, I put them down in book! :)