Soren4
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I do not get some points of this proof about the time derivative of a unit vector $\hat{u}$ (costant magnitude) which is following a precession motion. The picture is the following.
I want to prove that $$\frac{d\hat{u}}{dt}=\vec{\Omega}\wedge \hat{u}.$$
I'm ok with almost all the proof except the following points.
Consider the red vector d\hat{u}.
Since \hat{u} has constant magnitude,d\hat{u} must be orthogonal to \hat{u}.That's ok.
But why must d\hat{u} be orthogonal to \vec{\Omega} too (i.e. be tangential to a circle orthogonal to \vec{\Omega})?
Secondly how can I geometrically prove that the angle d\theta (the one in purple) that separates \hat{u}(t) and \hat{u}(t+dt) is the same that separates the projection of these two vectors on the circle orthogonal to \vec{\Omega} (the projections are \hat{u}(t) Sin(\alpha)and\hat{u}(t+dt) Sin(\alpha))?
I want to prove that $$\frac{d\hat{u}}{dt}=\vec{\Omega}\wedge \hat{u}.$$
I'm ok with almost all the proof except the following points.
Consider the red vector d\hat{u}.
Since \hat{u} has constant magnitude,d\hat{u} must be orthogonal to \hat{u}.That's ok.
But why must d\hat{u} be orthogonal to \vec{\Omega} too (i.e. be tangential to a circle orthogonal to \vec{\Omega})?
Secondly how can I geometrically prove that the angle d\theta (the one in purple) that separates \hat{u}(t) and \hat{u}(t+dt) is the same that separates the projection of these two vectors on the circle orthogonal to \vec{\Omega} (the projections are \hat{u}(t) Sin(\alpha)and\hat{u}(t+dt) Sin(\alpha))?