Proof of a^{\frac{p-1}{2}}=-1 mod p

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the expression \( a^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \equiv -1 \mod p \) for a prime \( p \) and an integer \( a \) that is coprime to \( p \). Participants explore the conditions under which this statement holds, particularly in relation to primitive roots and Fermat's little theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the validity of the statement by providing a counterexample with \( p=5 \) and \( a=4 \).
  • Another participant suggests that the statement may only hold true for primitive roots, prompting further inquiry into the reasoning behind this limitation.
  • A different participant references Fermat's little theorem as a potential tool to analyze the situation, indicating its relevance to the discussion.
  • One participant clarifies that the definition of a primitive root relates to the period of \( a \) modulo \( p \), which is tied to the order of \( a \) in the multiplicative group of integers modulo \( p \).
  • It is noted that while Fermat's little theorem guarantees that \( a^{p-1} \equiv 1 \mod p \), the actual period of \( a \) is a divisor of \( p-1 \), which is exactly \( p-1 \) only for primitive roots.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the initial claim, with at least one counterexample provided. There is no consensus on the conditions under which the statement holds, particularly concerning primitive roots.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the dependence on the definitions of primitive roots and the implications of Fermat's little theorem. The exact conditions under which the original statement is valid remain unresolved.

yavanna
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If [itex]p[/itex] is a prime and [itex]a[/itex] an integer coprime with [itex]p[/itex], why is

[itex]a^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\equiv -1 mod p[/itex] ?
 
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It's not true. Consider p=5 and a=4.
 
Yes, i was trying some examples and I think it only works with primitive roots... But why?
 
Are you aware of Fermat's little theorem?? Try to use that...
 
Hah, that's basically the definition of a primitive root. :smile:

Any co-prime "a" has a "period" indicating how soon it gets to "1".
Fermat's little theorem guarantees that (p-1) will bring it back to "1".
The actual period will be a divider of (p-1).
Only for primitive roots, the period is exactly (p-1).
 

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