Proof of Knaster-Tarski Theorem

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the proof of the Knaster-Tarski Theorem, specifically addressing the properties of a monotone function \( F: P(A) \to P(A) \) and the invariant sets under \( F \). The user questions the correctness of their proof, particularly the assertion that \( C = \bigcup_{X \subseteq A} F(F(X)) = F(X) \). The main point of contention is the implication that if \( B \in C \), then \( B \in X \) for some subset \( X \subseteq A \) such that \( X \subseteq F(X) \).

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  • Understanding of monotone functions in set theory
  • Familiarity with the concept of power sets, denoted as \( P(A) \)
  • Knowledge of the Knaster-Tarski Theorem and its implications
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  • Study the formal proof of the Knaster-Tarski Theorem
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Fermat1
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Let $F:P(A)->P(A$) be monotone and $C$ be the union of sets whose image is invariant under F. Prove $F(C)=C$

https://i.stack.imgur.com/3Wjdg.png
 
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What is your question?
 
Evgeny.Makarov said:
What is your question?

Hi, my question is my proof (in the image) correct?
 
Fermat said:
$C$ be the union of sets whose image is invariant under F
So, if I understand correctly, $$C=\bigcup_{X\subseteq A}F(F(X))=F(X)$$. But then it is not clear why $B\in C$ implies $B\in X$ for some $X\subseteq A$ such that $X\subseteq F(X)$.

Why don't you type the proof as text?
 

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