manish15689 Messages 2 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Apr 10, 2009 #1 How to prove that y''=d2y/dx2 if y=f(x)
arildno Science Advisor Homework Helper Gold Member Dearly Missed Messages 10,165 Reaction score 138 Apr 10, 2009 #2 ? That's just expressing the equivalence between two different types of notation conventions..
manish15689 Messages 2 Reaction score 0 Apr 10, 2009 #3 i want to know how does the notation d2y/dx2 come into existence...
arildno Science Advisor Homework Helper Gold Member Dearly Missed Messages 10,165 Reaction score 138 Apr 10, 2009 #4 manish15689 said: i want to know how does the notation d2y/dx2 come into existence... Leibniz introduced it. Why would that be of any interest??
manish15689 said: i want to know how does the notation d2y/dx2 come into existence... Leibniz introduced it. Why would that be of any interest??