MHB Proof of Sum-Union Measure Inequality

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the Sum-Union Measure Inequality, which states that for a sequence of measurable sets \(A_n\) in a measure space \((X, \mathcal{A}, \mu)\), where each point belongs to at most \(M\) sets, the inequality \(\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} \mu(A_n) \leq M \mu\left(\cup_{n=1}^{+\infty} A_n\right)\) holds. The participants explore the partitioning of sets and the mutual disjointness of subsets to establish the proof. Key insights include the use of set differences and the careful counting of intersections to maintain the integrity of the measure.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of measure theory concepts, particularly measurable sets and measures.
  • Familiarity with set operations, including union, intersection, and set difference.
  • Knowledge of the properties of measures, such as countable additivity.
  • Basic experience with mathematical proofs and inequalities.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of measures in detail, focusing on countable additivity and subadditivity.
  • Learn about the concept of disjoint unions and their implications in measure theory.
  • Explore examples of measurable sets and their measures to solidify understanding of the Sum-Union Measure Inequality.
  • Investigate advanced topics in measure theory, such as Lebesgue measure and integration.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of measure theory, and researchers interested in inequalities involving measures will benefit from this discussion. It is particularly relevant for those studying real analysis and probability theory.

mathmari
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Hello! :o

Let $(X, \mathcal{A}, \mu)$ a space of measure and $A_n$ a sequence of measurable sets such that each point of the space belongs to at most $M$ sets $A_n$.

Show that $$\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} \mu (A_n) \leq M \mu \left ( \cup_{n=1}^{+\infty} A_n \right )$$

Could you give me some hints how we could do that?? (WOndering)

We have that $$\mu \left ( \cup_{n=1}^{+\infty} A_n \right ) \leq \sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} \mu (A_n)$$ but how we show the relation above?? (Wondering)
 
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Hi mathmari,

This is going to be one of those arguments where if we were to discuss it in person it would probably make sense, but may be a bit tough to follow written out. If it's the latter, let me know and I can try to elaborate further.

FYI: Staring at the unit interval using $$A_{1}=[0,3/4]$$; $$A_{2}=[1/4,1]$$; $$A_{3}=[1/4,3/4]$$ was helpful to me to set up the general proof. One must be careful, though, because a few things are true for this example which are not necessarily the case for the problem statement:

1) There are only finitely many sets;

2) The union of the sets is the whole space.

Anyways, here we go. I will use $$A-B$$ to denote the difference of two sets (Note: This will preserve measurability; i.e. if $$A$$ and $$B$$ are measurable, then so is $$A-B$$). The key is to understand what comes next.
  • $$A_{i_{1}}-\bigcup_{i\neq i_{1}}A_{i}$$ where $$i_{1}\in \{1,2,3,\ldots\}$$ consists of points that are only in $$A_{i_{1}}$$
  • $$A_{i_{1}}\cap A_{i_{2}}-\bigcup_{i\neq i_{1},i_{2}}A_{i}$$ where $$i_{1},i_{2}\in \{1,2,3,\ldots\}$$ consists a points that are only in $$A_{i_{1}}\cap A_{i_{2}}$$
  • etcetera...
  • $$A_{i_{1}}\cap\ldots\cap A_{i_{M}}-\bigcup_{i\neq i_{1},\ldots,i_{M}}A_{i}$$ where $$i_{1},\ldots,i_{M}\in\{1,2,3,\ldots\}$$ consists of points that only belong to $$A_{i_{1}}\cap\ldots\cap A_{i_{M}}.$$

Essentially what the above does is partition/break up each of the A's into little pieces. Running through this process on the unit interval example above helps illustrate what's going on.

Now, first note that all of the sets above are mutually disjoint (even if they are listed in different bullet points), and that their union is actually equal to $$\cup_{i=1}^{\infty}A_{i}$$. Furthermore, the process above stops at all possible intersections of size M because of the given assumption (i.e. that each point in the union of the A's can belong to at most M of the A's).

Now let $$B_{i}$$ denote the set obtained by "unioning" the sets in a particular bullet point. For example,

$$B_{1}=\bigcup_{i_{1}=1}^{\infty}\Big(A_{i_{1}}-\bigcup_{i\neq i_{1}}A_{i}\Big)$$

This next bit may require more explanation, but the equality below follows from the fact that the sets that form the B's are disjoint and can be rearranged to reform the original A's, and the inequality comes from the fact that each B is contained in the union of the original A's:

$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\mu(A_{n})=\mu(B_{1})+\cdots +\mu(B_{M})\leq \mu(\cup A_{n})+\cdots +\mu(\cup A_{n})=M\mu(\cup A_{n})$$

Let me know if anything seems unclear/not quite right.Edit: I think there is a small issue with getting the counting of intersections correct. Also, there is a slight issue when we union the B's together because we will lose needed multiple countings of intersections, but I think the general idea here is what we want. Too tired to clean it up right now.
 
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