Proof on functions of an intersection of sets

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jeffreydk
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I'm working out of Abbott's Understanding Analysis and I'm trying to show the following,

For an arbitrary function [itex]g :\mathbb{R}\longrightarrow \mathbb{R}[/itex] it is always true that [itex]g(A\bigcap B) \subseteq g(A) \bigcap g(B)[/itex] for all sets [itex]A, B \subseteq \mathbb{R}[/itex].

I'm confused on how to get going with this--any help or hints would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.
 
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If [tex]X, Y[/tex] are sets for which you know the definitions or other properties, the classical way to show [tex]X \subset Y[/tex] is this:

1: Pick an arbitrary [tex]a \in X[/tex]

2: Use the definitions of the sets to show that [tex]a \in Y[/tex]

As a start, if you know that [tex]a \in g(A \cap B)[/tex], then you know that there is a value [tex]x_0[/tex] such that [tex]a = g(x_0)[/tex] and that [tex]x_0 \in A \cap B[/tex]. What else do you know about [tex]x_0[/tex], and how can you use that information?
 
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Thanks, that really helps, I think I've got it now.