Proof:phi(m) is always even if m>2

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving that the Euler's totient function, φ(m), is always even for integers m greater than 2. The user presents initial arguments involving coprimality and the properties of even integers, specifically analyzing the case where n equals m/2. The conversation highlights the need for a clearer proof structure and emphasizes the importance of understanding the set RP(m), which consists of numbers that are relatively prime to m. The conclusion drawn is that demonstrating the evenness of φ(m) can be approached by pairing elements within this set.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Euler's totient function φ(m)
  • Knowledge of coprimality and gcd (greatest common divisor)
  • Familiarity with set theory and pairing arguments
  • Basic number theory concepts, particularly regarding even and odd integers
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  • Study the properties of Euler's totient function φ(m) in detail
  • Learn about the implications of coprimality in number theory
  • Explore set theory concepts, particularly how to construct and analyze sets
  • Investigate pairing arguments in mathematical proofs
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Mathematicians, number theorists, and students interested in advanced topics in number theory, particularly those studying properties of the Euler's totient function and coprimality.

cwatki14
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So I am aiming to prove that phi(m) is always even if m>2.
What I have thus far
If n is an integer such that (n,m)=1 where 1<n<m then (m-n,m)=1. Note: If (m-n,m) are not coprime this would imply that m-n divides m. This is a contradiction.
Now, consider the case where m is even and n=m/2. Clearly m/2 divides m and the gcd(m/2,m)=m/2. m/2=1 iff m=2.

I am just a little lost how I can use this information to imply that phi(m) is always even...
 
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cwatki14 said:
Note: If (m-n,m) are not coprime this would imply that m-n divides m. This is a contradiction.

I don't understand this part by itself. If m - n is not coprime to n, it is not coprime to n, nothing more. However, it is true that if (n, m) = 1 then (m - n, m) = 1; you just need a better proof.

As for the argument as a whole: you have the flesh, but you are missing the bones.

\phi(m) is the size of a set. What set? The set RP(m) of numbers 1 \leq n \leq m which are relatively prime to m.

How do you show that the size of a set is even? One way is to divide it into pairs.
 

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