I Proof that 0 + 0 +....+ 0 +.... = 0

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The discussion revolves around proving that the infinite sum of zeros equals zero, with various participants exploring the rigor of this assertion. Some suggest that using limits and definitions of infinite sums can provide a solid foundation for the proof, while others highlight the need for clarity regarding the nature of infinity and summation rules. The conversation touches on the implications of different types of infinity, such as aleph-null and aleph-one, and how they affect summation. Participants emphasize the importance of defining terms and operations to avoid ambiguity in mathematical proofs. Ultimately, the consensus leans towards the idea that, under standard conventions, the infinite sum of zeros is indeed zero.
  • #31
With the same logic ##1+ \cdots + 1\,=\, 1## because ##\{1\} \cup \cdots \cup \{1\} = \{1\}##?
That approach brings more problems than it is supposed to solve, especially as it is trivial to show the limit directly with the definitions (as done in posts 27 and 29).
 
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  • #32
mfb said:
With the same logic 1+⋯+1=11+ \cdots + 1\,=\, 1 because {1}∪⋯∪{1}={1}\{1\} \cup \cdots \cup \{1\} = \{1\}?

No beacuse defining the successor function for sets ##S(A)=A\cup\{A\}## you have that ##1=S(\emptyset)=\emptyset \cup \{\emptyset\}=\{\emptyset,\{\emptyset\}\}## so ##1+1 \not = 1## but ##\{\{\emptyset,\{\emptyset\}\},\{\{\emptyset,\{\emptyset\}\}\}\}=2##.
Ssnow
 
  • #33
That is different from what you suggested before, and it is still wrong. If you identify addition with the union of sets then x+x=x for all x because ##s \cup s=s\quad \forall s##.

If you identify the addition with ##f(s,t)=\{s,\{t\}\}## then 1+1 works but nothing else works any more.
 
  • #34
mfb said:
If you identify the addition with f(s,t)={s,{t}}f(s,t)=\{s,\{t\}\} then 1+1 works but nothing else works any more.

Yes, I was thinking of "classes" rather than "sets" ...
 

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