Proof that e^z is not a finite polynomial

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freefall111
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Homework Statement



Prove that the analytic function e^z is not a polynomial (of finite degree) in the complex variable z.


The Attempt at a Solution



The gist of what I have so far is suppose it was a finite polynomial then by the fundamental theorem of algebra it must have at least one or more roots. e^z can never equal zero for hence this is a contradiction.

Is it okay for me to apply the fundamental theorem of algebra like this or am I kind of using a bit too much machinery here?
 
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Your proof is wrong. Indeed: [itex]e^{2\pi i}=0[/itex], so the function DOES have a root!
 
micromass said:
Your proof is wrong. Indeed: [itex]e^{2\pi i}=0[/itex], so the function DOES have a root!
Wait, what? [itex]e^{i2\pi} = 1[/itex]
 
Woow, I'm stupid today. :cry:

I'm sorry, your proof is alright! I obviously need to get some sleep.
 
freefall111 said:

Homework Statement



Prove that the analytic function e^z is not a polynomial (of finite degree) in the complex variable z.


The Attempt at a Solution



The gist of what I have so far is suppose it was a finite polynomial then by the fundamental theorem of algebra it must have at least one or more roots. e^z can never equal zero for hence this is a contradiction.

Is it okay for me to apply the fundamental theorem of algebra like this or am I kind of using a bit too much machinery here?

That looks like too much machinery (at least for my tastes); I would rather just argue that a polynomial of degree n has (n+1)st derivative = 0 identically, and ask whether that can happen for exp(z).

RGV