Proof through Induction with Inequality

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the inequality \(2^{n^2} > n^n\) for natural numbers \(n \geq 2\) using mathematical induction. Participants are exploring the validity of their approaches and the implications of the hints provided by the original poster's professor.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use induction, starting with a base case and then assuming the statement holds for \(n\) to prove it for \(n+1\). They express uncertainty about the legality of certain algebraic manipulations, particularly taking roots across inequalities.
  • Some participants suggest utilizing all provided hints, questioning whether the original poster applied them correctly.
  • Another participant proposes that the proof might be achievable without induction, focusing on a different interpretation of the inequality.

Discussion Status

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the implications of the hints given by the professor, which may influence their approach to the proof. There is also a mention of the base case for \(n=1\), which may not align with the problem's constraints of \(n \geq 2\).

MitsuZero
Messages
8
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement




Original Problem Text:
http://img264.imageshack.us/img264/5882/problem3pn7.th.gif

Prove that, if n \in N and n \geq 2, then 2^(n^2) > n^(n).

Homework Equations



Some Hints:
*** (n-1)^(n-1) * 2^(n-1) = (2n - 2)^(n-1)
*** If n >= 2 then (2n - 2) >= n.
*** If n >= 1 then 2^(n) >= n.

The Attempt at a Solution



Using Induction:

For the base step, suppose that n = 2. This implies that 2^(2^2) = 16, and 2^(2)= 4, and 16 > 4, so the base step is proven true.
Suppose that n>2, and that the theorem has been proven for all smaller values of n.

Then we compute:
2^(n^2) > n^n
2^(n-1)^2 > (n-1)^(n-1)
***Multiply both sides by 2^(n-1)***
2^(n-1)^2 * 2^(n-1) > (n-1)^(n-1) * 2^(n-1)
2^(n-1)^2 * 2^(n-1) = 2^(n^2 - n) = 2^(n(n-1))
2^(n(n-1)) > (2n -2)^(n-1)
***Now here's the screwy part - I took the (n-1) root across the inequality. I have my doubts about the mathematical legality of such an operation. ***
2^(n) > 2n - 2
2n -2 \geq n (since n \geq 2)
2^(n) > n
2^(n^2) > n^(2)


Does this proof make any sense at all? Does it even remotely resemble a proof? I should point out that I'm using (n-1) in place of (n+1) because that's the way my professor did it.

Thanks a lot for any help!
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
I'd try to use all hints they gave; they are usually given for a reason.
 
I believe I used just about all the hints my professor gave. Though whether I used them correctly is questionable.

For the first hint I multiplied both sides by 2^(n-1) in order to fit the form he gave -- i.e.
2^(n-1)^2 * 2^(n-1) > (n-1)^(n-1) * 2^(n-1)

For the second hint, I got rid of the (n-1) power on both sides (which itself is a questionable move), which gave the form:
2^(n) > 2n - 2

And finally, for the third hint, I related 2n - 2 > n to 2^(n) > 2n -2 > n.

Thanks again.
 
You are starting with the correct premise but not ending up with 2^(n^2) > n^(n)
 
It seems that we can do this without induction, using only the third hint since ...

2^{n^2} = 2^{n\times n} = (2^n)^n

It also seems to work for the case n = 1
 

Similar threads

Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
4K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
5K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K