Proofs on Sets: Help with Proving (A \cup B) X C

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bigrodey77
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Hello all,

I'm having a hard time trying to prove a few things. I'm looking for a little help because I cannot seem to grasp the concept of proofs and what constitutes a valid proof and if my proof is wrong, correcting it.

I have a proof done and if anyone could "critique" it I would be very grateful.

Prove: (A [tex]\cup[/tex] B) X C = (A X C) [tex]\cup[/tex] (B X C)

Proof:
Let x [tex]\in[/tex] (A [tex]\cup[/tex] B) X C
Then x is of the type (y,z) where y [tex]\in[/tex] A and z [tex]\in[/tex] C
Then y [tex]\in[/tex] A or y [tex]\in[/tex] B
Since z [tex]\in[/tex] C, (y,z) [tex]\in[/tex] A X C or
Since z [tex]\in[/tex] C, (y,z) [tex]\in[/tex] B X C
Then (y,z) [tex]\in[/tex] (A X C) [tex]\cup[/tex] (B X C)
Therefore (A [tex]\cup[/tex] B) X C = (A X C) [tex]\cup[/tex] (B X C)

Thanks for your time,

Ryan
 
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EnumaElish said:
What is X? does it stand for [itex]\cap[/itex]?

I would assume that it represents the cartesian product.
 
d_leet said:
I would assume that it represents the cartesian product.
"Duh!"

Let x in (A U B) X C
Then x is of the type (y,z) where y in A or B and z in C.

Otherwise your logic is correct.
 
Last edited:
Thank you guys very much for your responses, I am sure I'll have a couple more here tomorrow...

Thanks again!
 
Technical point: it would be better to say IF [itex]x\in (A\Cup B)\cross C[/itex]. "let x ..." runs into trouble if the set is empty!

More important point: you have proved that [itex](A\Cup B) X C \subset (A X C)\Cup (B X C)[/itex], not that they are equal you still have to prove that "if x is in [itex](A X C)\Cup (B X C)[/itex], then it is in [itex](A\Cup B) X C[\itex].[/itex]