Prove a^2 + b^2 = 3(s^2 + t^2) implies both a and b must are divisible by 3

  • Thread starter Ceres629
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In summary, Robert was stuck on a seemingly simple part of a proof and needed help from someone else. He was using a result from mathematics that was stronger then what he was trying to prove and it was confusing him. He thought that using the mean value theorem to prove Roelle's theorem would work, but it didn't.
  • #1
Ceres629
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I'm stuck on a seemingly simple part of a proof (a proof showing there are no non zero solutions of the equation a^2 + b^2 = 3(s^2 + t^2)

at one step it says if

a^2 + b^2 = 3(s^2 + t^2) this implies

both a and b must be divisible by 3.
I tried to prove this myself but have had no luck...

any ideas?
 
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  • #2
If a was divisible by 3 then a^2 would be divisible by 3 (and 9). If b wasn't, then b^2 wouldn't be and so of course a^2 + b^2 couldn't be. Now all you need to show is that if neither of the two are divisible by 3 then their sum can't be. Consider the equation mod 3 (or 9) and you should find the answer.
 
  • #3
I got as far as needing to show that if both a and b are not divisble by three then a^2 + b^2 must not be divisible by 3, but that's exactly where i got stuck,all attempts to show this have proved dead ends :(

*edit*

what i have managed to show is that if:

a not divisible by 3 => a%3 = 1 or 2

if a%3 = 1
a^2 % 3 = 1

if a%3 = 2
a^2 % 3 = 1

thus (a^2 + b^2) % 3 will always be 2 if a%3 and b%3 are non zero

this seems sufficient...
 
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  • #4
Yes, that is sufficient.

This leaves you with the final option: a and b are both divisible by 3.
 
  • #5
Ah okay, thanks for the pointer GreatHouse and thanks for the confirmation Gokul.

:smile:
 
  • #6
a^2 == -b^2 mod 3

if gcd(a,3)=1 ==> a^2 == 1 == -b^2 mod 3 ==> gcd(b,3)=1

but b^2 == -1 mod 3 is a contradiction ==> a and b must be divisible by 3
 
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  • #7
Ceres: a^2 + b^2 = 3(s^2 + t^2) this implies
both a and b must be divisible by 3.

Then if a and b are both divisible by 3, we now have 9(a'^2+b'^2) = 3(s^2+t^2), and this leads us to: 3(a'^2+b'^2) =s^2+t^2.

This looks like the original problem reversed!(?)
 
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  • #8
just work mod 3. i.e. the equation says you have a^2 +b^2 = 0 mod 3. trying a,b = 0,1,2, one sees nothing works except a=b=0.

so in fact the c^2+d^2 part is a red herring.
 
  • #9
robert Ihnot said:
This looks like the original problem reversed!(?)

I can't tell if robert is just confused, or more likely, taking appreciation at the step of 'descent' =] .
 
  • #10
Giz Z: I can't tell if robert is just confused, or more likely, taking appreciation at the step of 'descent=].

I was just hoping to go another step with the problem. INFINITE DESCENT? Yeah, just go look that up on Wikipedia, and by gosh! There is our problem.
 
  • #11
I think this is a simple proof, using Fermat's theorem.

al-mahed said:
a^2 == -b^2 mod 3

if gcd(a,3)=1 ==> a^2 == 1 == -b^2 mod 3 ==> gcd(b,3)=1

but b^2 == -1 mod 3 is a contradiction ==> a and b must be divisible by 3
 
  • #12
I was just trying to point out, as a hint, that the problem could be expanded to prove it had no non-trivial solutions. That is:

a^2+b^2 not equal to 3(s^2+t^2) unless a=b=c=d=0.


That was the intent. I guess it was not clear.
 
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  • #13
al-mahed said:
I think this is a simple proof, using Fermat's theorem.

When one uses a result much stronger then what is to be proven, It's sort of like using the mean value theorem to prove Roelle's theorem. Just an opinion though.
 
  • #14
I was just trying to help :cool:

Gib Z said:
When one uses a result much stronger then what is to be proven, It's sort of like using the mean value theorem to prove Roelle's theorem. Just an opinion though.
 

1. What is the significance of proving a^2 + b^2 = 3(s^2 + t^2)?

Proving this equation shows that there is a relationship between the squares of a and b, and the sum of the squares of s and t. It also implies that there is a common factor of 3 in both sides of the equation.

2. How does this equation relate to the divisibility of a and b by 3?

Since 3 is a common factor on both sides of the equation, it means that a^2 + b^2 must also be divisible by 3. This, in turn, means that a and b must also be divisible by 3.

3. Can this equation be proven using mathematical induction?

Yes, this equation can be proven using mathematical induction. The base case would be to show that the equation holds true for a = 3 and b = 0. Then, assuming the equation holds true for a = k and b = 0, it can be proven that it also holds true for a = k+1 and b = 0. The same process can be repeated for b = k and a = 0.

4. Is this equation only true for integers?

No, this equation is also true for real numbers. It can be proven using the Pythagorean theorem for right triangles, where a and b represent the lengths of the legs, and s and t represent the lengths of the hypotenuse.

5. What implications does this equation have in other areas of science?

This equation has implications in areas such as physics and engineering, where the Pythagorean theorem is frequently used. It can also be used to solve problems involving right triangles and their side lengths. Additionally, the relationship between the squares of numbers and their divisibility can be applied in other mathematical concepts and proofs.

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