Prove a satisfaction with the wave equation

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Homework Help Overview

The original poster attempts to prove that the functions u(r,t)=(1/r)f(r-v*t) and u(r,t)=(1/r)f(r+v*t) satisfy the wave equation in spherical coordinates. The problem involves applying the wave equation, grad^2(u)=(1/v)*(partial^2 u/partial t^2), to these functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the evaluation of the Laplacian operator and its application to the functions provided. There are questions about the correctness of the original poster's calculations and the use of the chain rule in deriving the second partial derivative with respect to time. Some participants suggest checking the matching of the left and right sides of the wave equation.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's attempts, providing feedback on their calculations and suggesting corrections. There is a focus on ensuring the proper application of mathematical principles, particularly regarding the derivatives involved. Multiple interpretations of the problem are being explored, and guidance has been offered without reaching a consensus.

Contextual Notes

The original poster expresses difficulty in matching the results of their calculations, indicating a potential misunderstanding or error in their approach. There is a mention of prior experience with similar problems, suggesting a contrast in complexity with the current task.

MKNA
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Homework Statement


i want to prove that the functions u(r,t)=(1/r)f(r-v*t) and u(r,t)=(1/r)f(r+v*t) satisfy the wave equation in spherical coordinates, i have tried a lot to solve it but in each time i would face a problem.

Homework Equations


wave equation : grad^2(u)=(1/v)*(partial ^2 u/partial t ^2)

The Attempt at a Solution

i have tried to solve it in different ways but it does not work with me.[/B]
 
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it is v^2 not v
 
What did you get after evaluating ##\nabla^2u##?
Since ##u## is not a function of ##\theta## and ##\phi##, the Laplacian operator will look like
$$
\frac{1}{r^2}\frac{\partial}{\partial r} \left( r^2 \frac{\partial u}{\partial r} \right)
$$
 
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blue_leaf77 said:
What did you get after evaluating ##\nabla^2u##?
i am rely sorry ,i am a new member here and i don't know how to write the symbols correctly ...((i found grad ^2 by saying that it equals the second partial derivative for u with respect to r)) .and i found the second partial derivative for u with respect to time. finally i could not match between them , usually when i evaluate the last i would find the first in it and so we can substitute here and reach to our goal,but it didn't work this time ,the question wants a general solution .a have solved such a question when u=sin(x-v*t) it was easy .
thank you so much ^-^
 
MKNA said:
((i found grad ^2 by saying that it equals the second partial derivative for u with respect to r)) .and i found the second partial derivative for u with respect to time. finally i could not match between them
Your wave equation is correct, taking into account the correction you gave in post #2. If you can't match the left and right hand side then you must be doing something wrong. Since you said that you have calculated ##\partial^2 u/\partial t^2##, can you show what you got here?
 
blue_leaf77 said:
Your wave equation is correct, taking into account the correction you gave in post #2. If you can't match the left and right hand side then you must be doing something wrong. Since you said that you have calculated ##\partial^2 u/\partial t^2##, can you show what you got here?
it goes like :
∂u/∂t=(1/r)(∂f/∂t)+(0)*f
=(1/r)(∂f/∂t)(-v)
∂²u/∂t²=(v²/r)*(∂²f/∂t²)
 
MKNA said:
∂u/∂t=(1/r)(∂f/∂t)+(0)*f
=(1/r)(∂f/∂t)(-v)
∂²u/∂t²=(v²/r)*(∂²f/∂t²)
That doesn't seem to be quite correct, especially the way you arrived at the second line. From the first line you have ##\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial f}{\partial t}##. To do the partial derivative w.r.t ##t##, you would have to use the chain rule, upon which it will be
$$
\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial f}{\partial t} = \frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial f}{\partial (r-vt)} \frac{\partial (r-vt)}{\partial t} = \frac{-v}{r}f'(r-vt)
$$
where ##f'(r-vt) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial (r-vt)}##. Calculating ##\partial^2 u/\partial t^2##, what did you get?
 
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blue_leaf77 said:
That doesn't seem to be quite correct, especially the way you arrived at the second line. From the first line you have ##\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial f}{\partial t}##. To do the partial derivative w.r.t ##t##, you would have to use the chain rule, upon which it will be
$$
\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial f}{\partial t} = \frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial f}{\partial (r-vt)} \frac{\partial (r-vt)}{\partial t} = \frac{-v}{r}f'(r-vt)
$$
where ##f'(r-vt) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial (r-vt)}##. Calculating ##\partial^2 u/\partial t^2##, what did you get?
i went through the first solution that you gave me,Since u is not a function of θ and ϕ as you have said ,and it is going real good ,i guess this is the best way ,i got two equation and i just have to substitute one in the other..thank you so much bro.
 

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