Prove "Monotone Decreasing" of (1 + 1/x)^(x+1)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the expression (1 + 1/x)^(x + 1) is monotone decreasing. This falls under the subject area of calculus, specifically dealing with sequences and inequalities.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to show that the ratio a(n)/a(n-1) is less than one for large n, expressing confusion about how to prove this. Some participants suggest using inequalities, such as bounding (1 + 1/n) and considering Bernoulli's inequality.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring various approaches to establish the monotonicity of the sequence. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of inequalities, but there is no explicit consensus on the validity of the proposed methods.

Contextual Notes

The original poster notes that the problem comes from an advanced calculus text that has not yet introduced derivatives, which may impose constraints on the methods available for proof.

Hammie
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Here's another one I'm doing just for the fun of it..

"prove that (1 + 1/x) ^ (x + 1) is monotone decreasing"

Okie Dokie..

If it just said show it, I'd be happy. Just plug in n=2, 3, 4.. and it is easy enough to observe that each term is decreasing.

But to prove it is monotone decreasing I must show that a(n) must be greater than a(n-1), that a(n)/a(n-1) < 1, at least for all large n.

What I have so far:

a(n)/a(n-1) = (1 + 1/n)((n^2-1)/n^2)^n

Or (1 + 1/n)(1 - 1/n^2)^n

What's up with this? How can I prove that this ratio is less than one? If the answer is obvious, it just seems to elude me..

This is early on in an old advanced calculus text. It hasn't even begun to talk about derivatives at this point.. I feel like I'm being asked to perform brain surgery with bone knives and bear skins..

:smile:


any suggestions or hints?
 
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Hammie said:
Or (1 + 1/n)(1 - 1/n^2)^n

At this point it would be nice to have a common power to simplify things. Can you bound (1+1/n) from above by something like (1+x)^n? What will work for x?
 
OK..

Don't know if this is what you were alluding to, but how about-

Use Bernouli's inequality, kind of backwards.

(1 + 1/n^2)^n > (1 + 1/n). simply reverse: (1+1/n) < (1 + 1/n^2)^n.

Therefore,

(1+1/n)(1 - 1/n^2)^n < (1-1/n^2)^n(1 + 1/n^2)^n = (1 - 1/n^4)^n

which by examination is less than one for all n.

Therefore a(n)/a(n-1) is less than one for all n. a(n) < a(n-1), therefore it is montone decreasing.

Is this valid?
 
Last edited:
That would be it. :smile:
 

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