Prove n^(1/n) tends to 1 as n tends to infinity

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that \( n^{1/n} \) tends to 1 as \( n \) approaches infinity. This topic falls under the subject area of limits and sequences in calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various methods to prove the limit, including comparisons to the form \( n^{1/n} = (1+h) \) and using the binomial series. Some mention the application of L'Hôpital's rule and the need to establish bounds for \( n^{1/n} \) in relation to \( 1 + \varepsilon \).

Discussion Status

The conversation includes attempts to clarify the approach to choosing \( N \) for the limit proof, with some participants expressing uncertainty and seeking further hints. There is acknowledgment of the simplicity of using L'Hôpital's rule, though not all participants are familiar with it.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note the challenge of applying the binomial expansion correctly and the need for additional terms in their reasoning. There is a recognition of the "infinity/infinity" form encountered in the logarithmic transformation of the sequence.

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Homework Statement



Need to prove n^(1/n) tend to 1 as n tends to infinty

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Have tried comparing to n^(1/n)=(1+h) and using binomial series but no joy..please help
 
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heshbon said:

Homework Statement



Need to prove n^(1/n) tend to 1 as n tends to infinty

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Have tried comparing to n^(1/n)=(1+h) and using binomial series but no joy..please help
The sequence [itex]n^{1/n}[/itex], as n goes to infinity, converges to a if the function [itex]x^{1/x}[/itex] converges to a as x goes to infinity. If we set [itex]y= x^{1/x}[/itex] then ln(y)= (ln x)/x which is of the "infinity/infinity" form so we can use L'Hopital's rule.
 
One direct method that comes to my mind is to show that for any [itex]\varepsilon>0[/itex] there exist N such that
[tex] n^{1/n}\leq 1+\varepsilon[/tex]
(It is easy to see that
[tex] n^{1/n}\geq 1[/tex]
)
for all n>N.
The first equation is equivalent to [itex]n\leq(1+\varepsilon)^n=1+n\varepsilon+\dots[/itex]

Do you see how to choose N?
 
wow..briliantly simple using l'hopital...though i have not yet come across this theorem at uni...still will impress the tutors. thanks
 
I can't see how to choose N...could you give me another hint?
 
Pere Callahan said:
The first equation is equivalent to [itex]n\leq(1+\varepsilon)^n=1+n\varepsilon+\dots[/itex]
?
I should have included the next term in the binomial expansion:smile:

[tex] n\leq 1+n\varepsilon+\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\varepsilon^2\Leftrightarrow \dots[/tex]
You just have to solve this for n>... and take the next larger integer for N.
 

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