Prove sets are equipotent using Schroder - Bernstein

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In summary, the Schroeder-Bernstein Theorem can be used to prove that two sets, the unit disc in the plane and the unit square, and the unit disc in the plane and the entire plane, have the same cardinality by producing explicit one-to-one maps. For the first set, the identity map can be used for g and the function f(x,y) = (x/2, y/2) can be used to reduce the size of the unit square. For the second set, the identity map can be used for g and a function f(x,y) = (x/2, y/2)/(x^2 + y^2 + 1) can be used to make the unit square fit
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fk378
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Homework Statement


Using the Schroeder-Bernstein Theorem, prove the following sets must have the same cardinality by producing explicit one-to-one (but not necessarily surjective) maps f: A-->B and g: B-->A.

(a) The unit disc in the plane A={(x,y) in R2: x^2 + y^2 <1} and the unit square B={(x,y) in R2: x,y in [-1,1]}.

(b) The unit disc in the plane A={(x,y) in R2: x^2 + y^2 <1} and the entire plane B=R2.

The Attempt at a Solution


I'm having trouble with this section we're working on because I don't know how to come up with an injective function at the top of my head.

For (a) the map g, can I use the map (x,y)-->(x^2 + y^2)/2?

For (b) the map g, can I use the map (x,y)-->(x^2+y^2)/(x^2+y^2)+1?

You can probably tell I am lost.
 
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No, of course those don't work:
1) because of the squares, neither of those is one to one.
2) you need two functions, f and g, for each.
3) those are functions from R2 to R, not R2 to R2.

My first thought. for (a), since the unit disk is already inside the unit square, you can take g to be the identity map: g((x,y))= (x,y). To go the other way "reduce" the size of the unit square so it is inside the unit dist: first map (x,y) to (x/2, y/2), then use the identity map: in other words, use f(x,y)= (x/2, y/2).


For (b) you can again use g((x,y))= (x,y). For f, dividing by x2+ y2+ 1 is good but you must have 2[/sup] components and the function must be one to one. There is an almost trivial choice for the numerators.
 

1. What is the Schroder-Bernstein Theorem?

The Schroder-Bernstein Theorem is a mathematical theorem that states that if there exist injective functions from set A to set B and from set B to set A, then there exists a bijection between set A and set B. In simpler terms, if there are one-to-one mappings between two sets, then those sets are equipotent, meaning they have the same cardinality.

2. How is the Schroder-Bernstein Theorem used to prove sets are equipotent?

In order to prove that two sets are equipotent using the Schroder-Bernstein Theorem, we need to show that there exist two injective functions between the two sets. This means that we need to find two one-to-one mappings, one from each set to the other, in order to prove that there exists a bijection between them.

3. Can the Schroder-Bernstein Theorem be used to prove sets of different sizes are equipotent?

Yes, the Schroder-Bernstein Theorem can be used to prove that sets of different sizes are equipotent. As long as there exist injective functions between the two sets, the theorem holds true and we can conclude that the sets are equipotent.

4. Are there any limitations to using the Schroder-Bernstein Theorem to prove sets are equipotent?

Yes, there are limitations to using the Schroder-Bernstein Theorem. It can only be used to prove sets are equipotent if there exist injective functions between the sets. If there are no such functions, then the theorem cannot be applied.

5. Can the Schroder-Bernstein Theorem be used to prove sets are not equipotent?

No, the Schroder-Bernstein Theorem can only be used to prove that sets are equipotent. It cannot be used to prove that sets are not equipotent. In order to prove that two sets are not equipotent, we need to show that there exists no bijection between them, not just no injective functions.

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