Prove that exp[A].exp = exp[A+B] only if A and B commute.

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The discussion centers on proving that exp[A] * exp[B] = exp[A+B] only if matrices A and B commute. Participants explore the series expansion of the exponential function and how to manipulate the terms to show the relationship. They note that when A and B do not commute, products like A^n B^m arise, complicating the proof. A key suggestion involves using index substitution to align the series expressions for both sides of the equation. The thread highlights the mathematical intricacies involved in the proof, emphasizing the importance of commutation in matrix exponentiation.
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Prove that exp[A].exp = exp[A+B] only if A and B commute.

Homework Statement



Prove that eA.eB = e(A+B) only if A and B commute.


The attempt at a solution

I expanded both sides of the equation.

(1+A+A2/2!...)(1+B+B2/2!+..) = (1+(A+B)+(A+B)2/2!+..)

Now how to proceed ?
 
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When you work out the brackets on the left hand side, you will get products like An Bm, where all the A's are to the left of the B's.

Now try to work out (A + B)n (e.g., start with (A + B)2). What do you need to get this in the same form?
 


Yeah,Now I got it.
Thank you.
 


Hi guys.
I was reading some QM and they mentioned exp(a+b)=exp(a)*exp(b) only if [a,b]=0; so I thought to go to the series definition of exp(x) and work it out by myself.

I do understand where the problem arises if suddenly a and b don't commute anymore, but that's not my problem. I want to write down the proof for exp(a+b)=exp(a)*exp(b) for "typical" a and b. iykwim

So, I came across your post and I would like some further details of how to preoceed in the proof.
this is what I have so far:

If:
<br /> exp(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{x^n}{n!}} <br />

Then, for exp(a)*exp(b), we have:<br /> exp(a)*exp(b)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \sum_{m=0}^{\infty}{\frac{a^n}{n!}}{\frac{b^m}{m!}} <br />

However, if I start with exp(a+b), I go like this:<br /> exp(a+b)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{(a+b)^n}{n!}} = <br /> \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{1}{n!}\binom{n}{k}a^k\cdot b^{n-k} =<br /> \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{a^k}{k!}\frac{b^{n-k}}{(n-k)!}<br />

-------------------------------------------------------------
Summarizing, I get on one hand:
<br /> \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \sum_{m=0}^{\infty}{\frac{a^n}{n!}}{\frac{b^m}{m!}} <br />
While on the other hand I get:
<br /> \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{a^k}{k!}\frac{b^{n-k}}{(n-k)!}<br />

The two expressions look alike, but I can't put them in the very exact form. Could you help me here?

How should I proceed? I have a feeling that some index substitution is the answer, but I haven't figured out which one...
 
You are quite there. If you define n-k=l, then you obtain only the sum over n of expressions of k and l with the condition that k+l=n for k,l>=0. This sum can then be written as two sums for k and l from 0 to infinity in both cases.
 
jjalonsoc said:
You are quite there. If you define n-k=l, then you obtain only the sum over n of expressions of k and l with the condition that k+l=n for k,l>=0. This sum can then be written as two sums for k and l from 0 to infinity in both cases.

This homework thread is 2 years old, so the OP is probably not working on the problem any more... :smile:
 

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