Prove that ##\langle x, y \rangle = 0 \iff ||x + cy|| \geq ||x||##.

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The discussion focuses on proving the equivalence between the inner product being zero and the inequality involving norms in a real Euclidean space. The first part demonstrates that if the inner product \( \langle x, y \rangle = 0 \), then \( ||x + cy||^2 \geq ||x||^2 \) holds true. The second part explores the reverse implication, where it is shown that if \( ||x + cy||^2 \geq ||x||^2 \), it leads to the conclusion that \( \langle x, y \rangle \) must also equal zero. The participants analyze the quadratic nature of the derived expression and discuss the conditions for its roots, ultimately confirming that both roots must be zero for the inequality to hold. The conclusion reinforces the equivalence of the two statements.
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Homework Statement
Prove that ##\langle x, y \rangle = 0 \iff ||x =cy|| \geq ||x||## for all real c.
Relevant Equations
A few of them.
(We are working in a real Euclidean space) So, we have to show two things: (1)the arrow goes from left to right, (2) the arrow comes from right to left.

(1) if we're given ##\langle x, y \rangle = 0 ##
$$
|| x+ cy||^2 = \langle x,x \rangle + 2c\langle x,y\rangle +c^2 \langle y,y \rangle $$
$$
||x+cy||^2 = ||x||^2 + c^2||y||^2 +2c\langle x,y\rangle$$
$$||x+cy||^2 = ||x||^2 || + c^2||y||^2$$
As ## c^2 ||y||^2 \geq 0##, we have ## ||x+cy||^2 \geq ||x||^2##.

(2) If we're given that ## ||x+cy||^2 \geq ||x||^2##, all that we can do is expand ##||x+cy||^2## and proceed
$$
||x||^2 +c^2 ||y||^2 + 2c \langle x, y \rangle \geq ||x||^2 $$
$$
c^2 ||y||^2 + 2c \langle x, y \rangle \geq 0$$

But how to conclude that ## \langle x, y\rangle = 0##. This is one of the archetypical case when we have to move backwards in mathematics.

All I can do is to say, if ##c^2 ||y||^2 + 2c \langle x, y \rangle \geq 0## has to be true for all real c, the case may arise for some negative c such that ##2c \langle x, y \rangle ## may exceed ##c^2 ||y||^2 ## and so to rule out that possibility we must make ##\langle x, y \rangle = 0##. What do you say about that?
 
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Hall said:
$$
c^2 ||y||^2 + 2c \langle x, y \rangle \geq 0$$
That is a function of ##c##, so you could use calculus.
 
PeroK said:
That is a function of ##c##, so you could use calculus.
Differentiating with respect to ##c##,
$$
c ||y||^2 + \langle x,y \rangle \geq 0$$
 
Hall said:
Differentiating with respect to ##c##,
$$
c ||y||^2 + \langle x,y \rangle \geq 0$$
That's not like any calculus I've seen.
$$f(c) \ge 0 \ \Rightarrow \ f'(c) \ge 0 \ (\text{?})$$
 
PeroK said:
That's not like any calculus I've seen.
$$f(c) \ge 0 \ \Rightarrow \ f'(c) \ge 0 \ (\text{?})$$
Oh! I simply differentiated both the sides, taking inequality, by mistake, as the equality.
 
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PeroK said:
That is a function of ##c##, so you could use calculus.
Can you please amplify the hint a little more?
 
Hall said:
$$
c^2 ||y||^2 + 2c \langle x, y \rangle \geq 0$$

But how to conclude that ## \langle x, y\rangle = 0##.

Let q(c) = \|y\|^2c^2 + 2c\langle x,y\rangle. Now q is a quadratic in c with real coefficients. The coefficient of c^2 is positive, so the condition that q(c) \geq 0 for all c is equivalent to the condition that q has at most one distinct real root. It is obvious that c = 0 is a root. What is the other?
 
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Hall said:
Can you please amplify the hint a little more?
You know that ##f(c) \ge 0## for all ##c##. Why not do an analysis of ##f(c)## regarding turning points, maxima and minima?
 
pasmith said:
Let q(c) = \|y\|^2c^2 + 2c\langle x,y\rangle. Now q is a quadratic in c with real coefficients. The coefficient of c^2 is positive, so the condition that q(c) \geq 0 for all c is equivalent to the condition that q has at most one distinct real root. It is obvious that c = 0 is a root. What is the other?
$$
\frac{ 2 \langle x,y\rangle } {||y||^2}=0$$
$$
\langle x, y \rangle =0$$
 
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PeroK said:
You know that ##f(c) \ge 0## for all ##c##. Why not do an analysis of ##f(c)## regarding turning points, maxima and minima?
There is some c such that f'(c)=0. But our function could be strictly increasing?
 
  • #11
Hall said:
There is some c such that f'(c)=0.
We have a quadratic in ##c## and can find the minimum by calculus (or by quadratic methods). But, we know that the minimum of ##f(c)## must be greater than or equal to zero. I'm hoping that tells us something about ##\langle x, y \rangle##.

Never forget the basics!
 
  • #12
PeroK said:
We have a quadratic in ##c## and can find the minimum by calculus (or by quadratic methods). But, we know that the minimum of ##f(c)## must be greater than or equal to zero. I'm hoping that tells us something about ##\langle x, y \rangle##.

Never forget the basics!
Yes, got that (post #9).
 
  • #13
Hall said:
$$
\frac{ 2 \langle x,y\rangle } {||y||^2}=0$$
$$
\langle x, y \rangle =0$$
I don't get this at all. How do you conclude that ##\langle x, y \rangle = 0##?
 
  • #14
PeroK said:
I don't get this at all. How do you conclude that ##\langle x, y \rangle = 0##?
@pasmith that said it has two two equal roots and one of them we know is zero, so, the other one must also be equal to zero.
 
  • #15
Hall said:
@pasmith that said it has two two equal roots and one of them we know is zero, so, the other one must also be equal to zero.
Hall said:
$$
\frac{ 2 \langle x,y\rangle } {||y||^2}=0$$
$$
\langle x, y \rangle =0$$
Okay, but I would have said that the other root is ##-\frac{ 2 \langle x,y\rangle } {||y||^2}##. And, if we need that root to be zero, then ##\langle x,y\rangle = 0##.
 
  • #16
PeroK said:
Okay, but I would have said that the other root is ##-\frac{ 2 \langle x,y\rangle } {||y||^2}##. And, if we need that root to be zero, then ##\langle x,y\rangle = 0##.
Quite the same logic of qudratics is used in this question:

It is given that ## \langle x, x \rangle =0 \iff x=0##. Prove that either ##\langle x,x \rangle \gt 0## or ##\langle x, x \rangle \lt 0## for all ##x \neq 0##.
 
  • #17
There is a different argument that gives the result rather quickly:

We have ##c^2 ||y||^2 + 2c\langle x,y\rangle \geq 0## for all ##c##. Assume that unless ##\langle x,y\rangle \neq 0##. For small enough ##c##, the first term in the inequality will be negligible compared to the second, which will therefore determine the sign of the LHS. However, as the sign of ##c## is arbitrary, we cannot have ##c\langle x,y\rangle \geq 0## for both positive and negative ##c##, leading to a contradiction. Hence, the assumption that ##\langle x,y\rangle \neq 0## is false and therefore ##\langle x,y\rangle = 0##.
 
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