Prove that the range of h is the entire R

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that the range of a continuous function h, defined from the real numbers to the real numbers, is the entire set of real numbers under certain conditions regarding boundedness.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of the function being unbounded above and below, questioning how to demonstrate that both smaller and larger values must exist in the range of h. The use of the intermediate value theorem (IVT) is suggested as a potential approach to establish the continuity and range of h.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering hints and exploring the implications of the IVT. There is a recognition of the need to show that for any arbitrary value y, there exist corresponding values in the range of h. However, there is no explicit consensus on the final proof or outcome yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working within the constraints of the problem statement, focusing on the properties of continuous functions and the implications of boundedness without providing a complete solution.

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Homework Statement


The function [itex]h: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}[/itex] is continuous on [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex] and let [itex]h(\mathbb{R})=\left\{ {h(x):x \in \mathbb{R}} \right\}[/itex] be the range of [itex]h[/itex]. Prove that if [itex]h(\mathbb{R})[/itex] is not bounded above and not bounded below, then [itex]h(\mathbb{R})=\mathbb{R}[/itex]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



Well, this problem sounds so intuitive I don't know how to prove it. The only thing I can write down here is there exists a [itex]M > 0[/itex] s.t [itex]|h(x)|> M[/itex] for all real [itex]x[/itex].
 
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For some y, can you show that some smaller value and some larger value have to be in the range of h? Afterwards, the solution is just 1 step away.
 
Let y be any number. Since y is not an upper bound for f, there exist Y1>y such that Y1= f(x1) for some x1 Since y is not a lower bound for f, the exist Y2< y such that Y2= f(x2) for some x2. Now use the "intermediate value property.
 
Thank you both for the great help. So let me continue from HallsofIvy's hint: By the IVT, there exists a real number [itex]x[/itex] such that [itex]h(x)=y[/itex]. Since [itex]y[/itex] was arbitrary, [itex]h(x)=\mathbb{R}[/itex]. Is that right?
 
drawar said:
Since [itex]y[/itex] was arbitrary, [itex]h(x)=\mathbb{R}[/itex]. Is that right?
##\{h(x)|x \in \mathbb{R}\}=\mathbb{R}##. h(x) is a single number.
Apart from that: right.
 

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