ian2012
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I hope someone can help me with this:
Let the the inverse A A^{-1}=A^{-1} A=I, where I is the identity operator. Proofing that (AB)^{-1}=B^{-1} A^{-1} :
"First, you want to check whether (AB)(B^{-1} A^{-1})=I. "
However that means the inverse of AB multiplied by AB gives the identity operator, which isn't true, surely, due to Cramer's rule?
Let the the inverse A A^{-1}=A^{-1} A=I, where I is the identity operator. Proofing that (AB)^{-1}=B^{-1} A^{-1} :
"First, you want to check whether (AB)(B^{-1} A^{-1})=I. "
However that means the inverse of AB multiplied by AB gives the identity operator, which isn't true, surely, due to Cramer's rule?