Proving Combinations Formula | Step-by-Step Guide and Examples

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a combinatorial identity involving binomial coefficients, specifically the equation relating combinations of \( n \) and \( m \) to other combinations with adjusted parameters. Participants are exploring the validity of the identity and the necessary steps to prove it.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants attempt to manipulate the given equation and express it in terms of factorials and combinations. There are discussions about finding a common denominator and simplifying expressions. Some participants question the correctness of specific terms and suggest checking assumptions about the parameters involved.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing hints and questioning each other's approaches. Some have suggested alternative interpretations of the problem, and there is a recognition of potential typos in the original problem statement. Multiple lines of reasoning are being explored without a clear consensus on the correct approach.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the problem may involve constraints such as \( n \geq 2 \) and \( m \geq 2 \). There are concerns about undefined expressions when substituting specific values for \( n \) and \( m \), leading to discussions about the validity of the original problem statement.

Government$
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Homework Statement


Prove the following:

[itex]\frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!} = \frac{n!}{(m-2)!(n-m + 2)!} + 2* \frac{(n-1)!}{(m-1)!(n-m)!} + \frac{(n-2)!}{(m-2)!(n-m)!}[/itex]



The Attempt at a Solution



I tried writing following

[itex]\frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!} = \frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!}(\frac{m(m-1)}{(n-m + 2)(n-m + 1)} + \frac{2m}{n} + \frac{m(m-1)}{n(n-1)}[/itex])

Now i should get [itex]\frac{m(m-1)}{(n-m + 2)(n-m + 1)} + \frac{2m}{n} + \frac{m(m-1)}{n(n-1)} = 1[/itex]
but i don't get 1. Any other ideas?
 
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Hint: m! = m * (m-1) * (m-2)!
 
I know that, but where to use it?
 
your m(m-1)/n(n-1) is wrong :redface:
 
I rechecked it two or three time i really don't see how it is wrong.
 
Government$ said:

Homework Statement


Prove the following:

[itex]\frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!} = \frac{n!}{(m-2)!(n-m + 2)!} + 2* \frac{(n-1)!}{(m-1)!(n-m)!} + \frac{(n-2)!}{(m-2)!(n-m)!}[/itex]
What is the lowest common denominator for the right-hand side ?

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried writing following

[itex]\frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!} = \frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!}(\frac{m(m-1)}{(n-m + 2)(n-m + 1)} + \frac{2m}{n} + \frac{m(m-1)}{n(n-1)}[/itex])

Now i should get [itex]\frac{m(m-1)}{(n-m + 2)(n-m + 1)} + \frac{2m}{n} + \frac{m(m-1)}{n(n-1)} = 1[/itex]
but i don't get 1. Any other ideas?
 
(m-1)!(n-m+2)!
 
I don't understad why, since (m-2)! doesn't contain (m-1) nor (n-m)! contains (n-m+2)! or (n-m+1)!
 
If i want get whole expression under one fraction i should multply first fraction with (m-1)/(m-1) to get n!(m-1)/(m-1)!(n-m+2)! , second fraction with (n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(n-m+2)(n-m+1) to get
(n-1)!(n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(m-1)!(n-m+2)! , and third with (m-1)(n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(m-1)(n-m+2)(n-m+1)
to get (n-2)!(m-1)(n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(m-1)!(n-m+2)!
 
  • #10
Government$ said:
I don't understad why, since (m-2)! doesn't contain (m-1) nor (n-m)! contains (n-m+2)! or (n-m+1)!
You were correct. I deleted my post, but you must have seen it before I deleted it.
 
  • #11
Government$ said:
If i want get whole expression under one fraction i should multply first fraction with (m-1)/(m-1) to get n!(m-1)/(m-1)!(n-m+2)! , second fraction with (n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(n-m+2)(n-m+1) to get
(n-1)!(n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(m-1)!(n-m+2)! , and third with (m-1)(n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(m-1)(n-m+2)(n-m+1)
to get (n-2)!(m-1)(n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(m-1)!(n-m+2)!
That's virtually unreadable as it is written. Break it up into separate lines & give it some space...

As follows:
If i want get whole expression under one fraction i should multiply:

first fraction with (m-1)/(m-1) to get
n!(m-1)/(m-1)!(n-m+2)! ,​
second fraction with (n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(n-m+2)(n-m+1) to get
(n-1)!(n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(m-1)!(n-m+2)! ,​
and third with (m-1)(n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(m-1)(n-m+2)(n-m+1)
to get
(n-2)!(m-1)(n-m+2)(n-m+1)/(m-1)!(n-m+2)!​

So the numerator is (m-1)n! + 2(n-m+2)(n-m+1)(n-1)! + (m-1)(n-m+2)(n-m+1)(n-2)! .

There's a common factor of (n-2)! , right?
 
  • #12
After that i get (n-2)!*(n(n-1)(m-1) + 2(n-m+2)(n-m+1)(n-1) + (m-1)(n-m+2)(n-m+1))/(m-1)!(n-m+2)!

i tried and i can't find any other common factor in numerator and i have common factors between two products such as (n-1) , (m-1), (n-m+2)(n-m+1). Only other way is to multiply everything and then try to factor out something that will cancel m-1 and (n-m+2)(n-m+1) in denominator.
 
  • #13
Government$ said:
[itex]\frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!} = \frac{n!}{(m-2)!(n-m + 2)!} + 2* \frac{(n-1)!}{(m-1)!(n-m)!} + \frac{(n-2)!}{(m-2)!(n-m)!}[/itex]
Have you checked whether it even seems to be true? Try n=m=2.
 
  • #14
haruspex said:
Have you checked whether it even seems to be true? Try n=m=2.
I was about to ask a similar question.

This may also be what tiny-tim was suggesting.Is there a typo in your expression?

In terms of binomial coefficients, what the OP states is that you are trying to prove that

[itex]\displaystyle \ \binom{n}{m}=\binom {n} {m-2}+2\binom {n-1} {m-1}+\binom {n-2} {m-2}\ .[/itex]
 
  • #15
SammyS said:
I was about to ask a similar question.

This may also be what tiny-tim was suggesting.


Is there a typo in your expression?

In terms of binomial coefficients, what the OP states is that you are trying to prove that

[itex]\displaystyle \ \binom{n}{m}=\binom {n} {m-2}+2\binom {n-1} {m-1}+\binom {n-2} {m-2}\ .[/itex]

That is exactly what i need to prove, i just didn't know how to write it like that using Latex. Here is full text of problem:

Prove that [itex]\displaystyle \ \binom{n}{m}=\binom {n} {m-2}+2\binom {n-1} {m-1}+\binom {n-2} {m-2}\ n\geq2, m \geq2[/itex]

When i plug in n=m=2 i get [itex]\frac{0}{0} = \frac{2}{0} + \frac{2}{0} + \frac{0}{0}[/itex]
 
  • #16
Government$ said:
Prove that [itex]\displaystyle \ \binom{n}{m}=\binom {n} {m-2}+2\binom {n-1} {m-1}+\binom {n-2} {m-2}\ n\geq2, m \geq2[/itex]

When i plug in n=m=2 i get [itex]\frac{0}{0} = \frac{2}{0} + \frac{2}{0} + \frac{0}{0}[/itex]
No, 0! = 1. [itex]\binom{0}{0} = \binom{2}{0} = 1[/itex]
 
  • #17
Yea, i overlooked that. With that in mind.

Let n=m=2

[itex]\frac{2!}{2!(2-2)!} = \frac{2!}{(2-2)!(2-2 + 2)!} + 2* \frac{(2-1)!}{(2-1)!(2-2)!} + \frac{(2-2)!}{(2-2)!(2-2)!}[/itex]

[itex]\frac{1}{1(0)!} = \frac{1}{(0)!1} + 2* \frac{1}{1(0)!} + \frac{(0)!}{(0)!(0)!}[/itex]

[itex]1 = 1 + 2 + 1[/itex]

[itex]1 = 4[/itex]
 
  • #18
Government$ said:
That is exactly what i need to prove, i just didn't know how to write it like that using Latex. Here is full text of problem:

Prove that [itex]\displaystyle \ \binom{n}{m}=\binom {n} {m-2}+2\binom {n-1} {m-1}+\binom {n-2} {m-2}\ n\geq2, m \geq2[/itex]

When i plug in n=m=2 i get [itex]\frac{0}{0} = \frac{2}{0} + \frac{2}{0} + \frac{0}{0}[/itex]
Do you suppose the problem should have been to prove

[itex]\displaystyle \ \binom{n}{m}=\binom {n-2} {m-2}+2\binom {n-2} {m-1}+\binom {n-2} {m}\,,\ n\geq2, m \geq2 \ ?[/itex]
 
  • #19
Maybe i will try to slove it,

This problem should be difficult according to my textbook, here is a pic from my textbook:

http://img444.imageshack.us/img444/8316/img00121201304241927.jpg
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #20
SammyS said:
Do you suppose the problem should have been to prove

[itex]\displaystyle \ \binom{n}{m}=\binom {n-2} {m-2}+2\binom {n-2} {m-1}+\binom {n-2} {m}\,,\ n\geq2, m \geq2 \ ?[/itex]

I managed to prove this without much problem.
Probably it is a typo in my textbook.
 

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