Proving Congruent Integers: Tips & Advice

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving a statement about congruence of integers, specifically that if \( a \) is congruent to \( b \) modulo \( n \), then \( ak \) is congruent to \( bk \) modulo \( n \) for positive integer \( k \). The context is within number theory and modular arithmetic.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using mathematical induction as a method to prove the statement, starting with the base case for \( k = 1 \) and assuming it holds for \( k = m \) to show it for \( k = m + 1 \). Others suggest using algebraic manipulation involving the difference of powers.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active with various approaches being explored, including induction and algebraic identities. Some participants express caution about providing too much direct help, indicating a focus on guiding the original poster rather than giving complete solutions.

Contextual Notes

There is a hint provided in the original post regarding a related proposition about the sum of congruent integers, which participants are considering in their reasoning. The original poster expresses feeling lost, indicating a need for clarification and guidance.

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Homework Statement


I need to prove the following but have no idea how to do so.

Let a,b, k be integers with k positive. If a is congruent to b(mod n), then ak is congruent to bk (mod n).


Homework Equations


The hint given is that I can assume the following proposition is true and that I am supposed to use it to show the statement holds for k=2,3...

Proposition:
If a is congruent to b(mod n) and c is congruent to d(mod n) then a+c is congruent to b+d(mod n)

Thanks for your help, I am pretty lost on this so anything helps.
 
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The directions of this problem seem to be pointing you to doing it by induction on k. For k = 1, the proposition is obviously true.

Assume the proposition is true for k = m. IOW, assume that
am [itex]\equiv[/itex] bm mod n.

Now use this assumption to show that the proposition is true for k = m + 1. I.e., that
am + 1 [itex]\equiv[/itex] bm + 1 mod n.

Something that might be helpful is that if p [itex]\equiv[/itex] q mod n, then p - q [itex]\equiv[/itex] 0 mod n.
 
Simpler, I think. [itex]a^k- b^k= (a- b)(a^{k-1}+ a^{k-2}b+ \cdot\cdot\cdot ab^{k-2}+ b^{k-1})[/itex]. Now use the fact that, since a= b (mod n), a- b is a multiple of n.
 
That's similar to the direction I was sending the OP, but didn't want to get dinged again for giving too much help...
 

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