Proving Equality of Analytic Functions on a Simple Loop

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equality of two analytic functions, f and g, defined on and inside a simple loop Γ, given that they are equal on the boundary of the loop. This topic is related to Cauchy's Integral Formula.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of Cauchy's Integral Formula and how it relates to the equality of functions on the boundary versus inside the loop. Questions arise regarding the application of the formula and the conditions under which it holds.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes various interpretations of the proof's starting point and the conditions necessary for applying Cauchy's Integral Formula. Some participants provide guidance on clarifying the definitions and assumptions involved in the proof.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted confusion regarding the distinction between points on the loop and those inside it, as well as the requirements for the integral to be well-defined. Participants are encouraged to clarify these aspects without reaching a definitive conclusion.

Warr
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Here's my question:

Let f and g be analytic inside and on the smple loop [tex]\Gamma[/tex]. Prove that if f(z)=g(z) for all z on [tex]\Gamma[/tex], then f(z)=g(z) for all z inside [tex]\Gamma[/tex].

Don't really know where to start on this one. This comes from the section 'Cauchy's Integral Formula'.
 
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What does Cauchy's Integral Formula tell you about the value of a function at point z0 **inside** Gamma in terms of the integral of that function around Gamma?
 
well it states that for a point z0 inside gamma,

[tex]f(z_0)=\frac{1}{2\pi\i}{\int_\Gamma}\frac{f(z)}{z-z_0}dz[/tex]

But where do I go from there. I think I'm missing something big and obvious :x

k here is my guess:

since [tex]f(z_0)=g(z_0)[/tex] for all [tex]z_0[/tex] on [tex]\Gamma[/tex], then we know

[tex]\frac{1}{2\pi\i}{\int_\Gamma}\frac{f(z)}{z-z_0}dz=\frac{1}{2\pi\i}{\int_\Gamma}\frac{g(z)}{z-z_0}dz[/tex], and therefore f(z)=g(z) for all z in [tex]\Gamma[/tex] since this formula is ambiguous whether z_0 is on [tex]\Gamma[/tex] or inside of it.

Problem is this seems like I'm missing something. For this case, even if I write that shouldn't it still only apply to the loop itself and not what is inside. Is there some subtle thing I am missing that would allow me to actually say what I just said?
 
Last edited:
That's a perfectly valid proof. However, it's not true that "this formula is ambiguous whether z_0 is on or inside of it". It requires that z0 be inside the loop so that [itex]\frac{f(z)}{z-z_0}[/itex] be defined for all x on the loop.
 
Warr said:
since [tex]f(z_0)=g(z_0)[/tex]

How can you start the proof with this statement? That is what you are trying to prove!

Warr said:
for all [tex]z_0[/tex] on [tex]\Gamma[/tex]

Ummmm...NO. As Halls pointed out, z0 is a point INSIDE gamma, not on it.

Warr said:
[tex]\frac{1}{2\pi i}{\int_\Gamma} \ \frac{f(z)}{z-z_0} \ dz \ = \ \frac{1}{2\pi i}{\int_\Gamma} \ \frac{g(z)}{z-z_0} \ dz[/tex]

I think this is the statement you start the proof with. It follows immediately from the fact that f(z) = g(z) on Gamma. From there the proof is as straightforward as applying the formula.
 
Sorry, I don't think I was thinking too clearly when I wrote that. Thanks for the advice.
 

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