Proving Equivalence of Arithmetic Mean and Least Square Criterion

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equivalence of the arithmetic mean and the least square criterion in the context of fitting a line to a set of data points. The original poster seeks assistance in understanding how to approach this proof.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the distance formula related to the least square criterion and how to minimize it with respect to the arithmetic mean. There are attempts to set derivatives to zero and explore the implications of these calculations.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the mathematical expressions and exploring the relationships between the arithmetic mean and the least square criterion. Some guidance has been offered regarding the steps to take, but there is no explicit consensus on the next steps or the overall proof.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on understanding the implications of derivatives and sums in the context of the proof, with some confusion about the relationships between the terms involved. Participants are navigating through these mathematical concepts without a complete resolution.

kreil
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Homework Statement



Show that the calculation of an arithmetic mean for a given set of values y1,y2...yn is equivalent to fitting the line y=y_av to the data under the least square criterion

Homework Equations



distance between the data points and the best fit curve:
[tex]d(y_n,f(x))= \Sigma_{i=1}^{n}(y_i-f(x_i,a_1,a_2,...,a_n))^2[/tex]

arithmetic mean of a set of values y_n:
[tex]y_av= \frac{1}{n} \Sigma_{i=1}^{n}y_i[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I need help getting started please!
 
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In your distance formula, just put f=y_av. Now how would you minimize d with respect to y_av?
 
set the partial derivative of d equal to zero?
 
Last edited:
kreil said:
set the partial derivative equal to zero?

Absolutely. What do you get?
 
[tex]\frac{d(R^2)}{dy_{av}}= -2 \Sigma_{i=1}^n(y_i-y_{av})=0[/tex]
 
What's your next move?
 
i was thinking maybe distribute the sum, but i don't know how the -2 helps, since I am trying to get the formula in the form of the arithmetic mean
 
-2*x=0 means x=0, doesn't it?
 
how is this:

[tex]\frac{d(R^2)}{dy_{av}}= -2 \Sigma_{i=1}^n(y_i-y_{av})=0 \implies \Sigma_{i=1}^n(y_i-y_{av})=0 \implies \Sigma_{i=1}^ny_i=\Sigma_{i=1}^ny_{av}=y_{av}[/tex]
 
  • #10
The sum from 1 to n of y_av is NOT = y_av.
 
  • #11
oh ok that sum is n y_av, so the sum of 1/ny_i is y_av correct?
 
  • #12
That's what you are trying to prove, right?
 
  • #13
right! thanks a lot man
 

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