Proving f(f⁻¹(B)) = B for All B in Y

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equality f(f⁻¹(B)) = B for all subsets B in the codomain Y of a function f that is onto. The participants are exploring the implications of a function being onto and the nature of its inverse.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the definition of an onto function and its implications for the existence of an inverse. There is an exploration of what it means for a function to be onto and how that relates to the behavior of its inverse.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided clarifications regarding the definitions involved, particularly about the nature of right inverses and their relationship to onto functions. There is an ongoing exploration of the proof required, with no explicit consensus reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are discussing the definitions and properties of functions without assuming prior knowledge of the proof techniques or theorems that may apply. There is a focus on understanding the implications of the definitions rather than jumping to conclusions.

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Homework Statement


Prove that if f: [tex]X \rightarrow Y[/tex] is onto, then [tex]f(f^{-1}(B))=B[/tex] [tex]\forall B \in Y[/tex]

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The Attempt at a Solution

 
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What does it mean for a function to be onto? What kind of inverse does f possesses iff it is onto?
 
Onto means that for a function [tex]f:A \rightarrow B[/tex] if [tex]\forall b \in B[/tex] there is an [tex]a \in A: f(a)=b[/tex]

The inverse means that if you take the [tex]f^{-1}(b)[/tex] that it should map back to a?
 
Correct. But note that a right inverse exists if the function is onto. I.e., if g is a right inverse of f, then f(g(y)) = y, for every y in Y. What you need to prove is a direct consequence of this fact. (I used "g" rather than "f^-1" for the right inverse to avoid confusion leading to a conclusion that f^-1 is an inverse, i.e. both left and right).
 
So I need to prove that if [tex]f(y)=Y[/tex] and [tex]f^{1}(Y)=y[/tex], that [tex]f(f^{1}(Y))=Y[/tex]?
 

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