Proving Hv = 0 for a Symmetric Matrice with Orthogonal Diagonalization

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that if \( H^{(k+1)}v = 0 \) for a real symmetric matrix \( H \) and a real column vector \( v \), then it follows that \( Hv = 0 \). The context involves properties of symmetric matrices and their diagonalization.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of diagonalizing the matrix \( H \) using an orthogonal matrix \( Q \) and discuss the relationship between the null space of the diagonal matrix and its powers. Questions arise about the nature of \( v \) and its transformation under \( Q \).

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the properties of diagonal matrices and their null spaces. Some guidance has been offered regarding the implications of working in a diagonal basis, but no consensus has been reached on the final steps of the proof.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the original poster's uncertainty about removing \( Q \) from the equation and the implications of \( v \) being non-zero. The discussion also touches on the need for clarity regarding the null space of diagonal matrices and their powers.

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Homework Statement


Suppose H is an n by n real symmetric matrix. v is a real column n-vector and H^(k+1)v = 0. Prove that Hv = 0

The Attempt at a Solution



Since H is a real symmetric matrice we can find an orthogonal matrix Q to diagnolize it:

M = Q transpose.

MA^(k+1)Qv = 0

Implying

A^(k+1)Qv = 0

This is where I'm stuck I'm not sure how to proceed.

I'm pretty sure its not possible to somehow get Q remove from the equation because that implies v or A would have to be 0 but this does not follow since I can easily cook up an example were there is a symmetric matrix to a power were H^(K+1)v=0 and v != 0. Thus any hints would be appreciated.
 
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If you work in the basis where H is diagonal then replace the phrase "n by n real symmetric matrix" in your premise with "n by n DIAGONAL matrix". Can you prove that one?
 
Assume v is not zero. Then, since Q is invertible, Qv is not zero. So Qv must be in the nullspace of A^(k+1). What is the null space of a diagonal matrix, and how is this related to the nullspace of its powers?
 
Dick said:
If you work in the basis where H is diagonal then replace the phrase "n by n real symmetric matrix" in your premise with "n by n DIAGONAL matrix". Can you prove that one?

That was the proof shown in class where you chose to represent the matrix using a basis consisting of eigen vectors, though I didnt start my proof that way and I believe that the diagonalization method should work if I could finish the last step.

Statusx: It would imply that Qv is in the nullspace of A itself since A^(k+1) simply exponentiates each entry by k+1 (diagonal matrice), though I'm unsure how that shows Av = 0.

You would get AQv = 0

Transpose of Qv (easier as a row vector when typing) would be something along the lines:

[0,0,0,...,a_i,...,0] where a_i can by any real number corresponding to a 0 in the diagonal entry a_ii in the diagonal matrice A.
 
moo5003 said:
You would get AQv = 0

Right, and so MAQv = Hv = 0.
 

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