Proving Inequalities with n > 2: A Challenge

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion centers on proving two inequalities involving sums of powers of variables σ_i, specifically for n > 2. The inequalities are expressed as c_β, where c_0 and c_∞ are shown to be greater than c_1. The participants suggest techniques for proving these inequalities, including evaluating limits as B approaches 0 and infinity, and leveraging the derivative approach used for n = 2. The discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding the behavior of these sums under the specified conditions.

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Dear all,

I want to prove that the following inequalities are true. I hope you can give some hints. Thanks a lot!

Define

[tex] c_{\beta}=\sum_{j=1}^n<br /> \sigma_j^{\frac{2\beta}{\beta+1}}\sum_{1\leq i<k \leq n}\Big(<br /> \sigma_k^{\frac{2}{3(\beta+1)}} +<br /> \sigma_i^{\frac{2}{3(\beta+1)}} \Big)^3 , \mbox{\hspace{1.5cm}}0\leq\sigma_i^2\leq 1, \forall i\in \{1,2,\cdots,n\}[/tex]


Prove that:

1)
[tex] n \sum_{1\leq i <k \leq n}\Big(<br /> \sigma_k^{\frac{2}{3}} +<br /> \sigma_i^{\frac{2}{3}} \Big)^3 \geq \sum_{j=1}^{n}\sigma_j \sum_{1\leq i <k \leq n}\Big(<br /> \sigma_k^{\frac{1}{3}} +<br /> \sigma_i^{\frac{1}{3}} \Big)^3[/tex]


and
2)
[tex] 4n(n-1) \sum_{j=1}^n \sigma_j^2 \geq \sum_{j=1}^{n} \sigma_j \sum_{1\leq i <k \leq n}\Big(<br /> \sigma_k^{\frac{1}{3}} +<br /> \sigma_i^{\frac{1}{3}} \Big)^3[/tex]

I.e.:
[tex] c_0 \geq c_1[/tex]

[tex] c_{\infty} \geq c_1[/tex]


It is easy to prove when n=2 by taking the dirivative with respect to [tex]\sigma_1[/tex], and showing that the dirivative switches the sign at point [tex]\sigma_1 = \sigma_2[/tex]. How to prove when n>2?

Thanks a lot!
 
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1) So, what happens if you let B=0, then B=1 ? Base on your given condition C0>C1, you can prove 1.
2) Things are just the same, you pay attention to 4n(n-1) which is kind of a sum's result, and let B->infinity, then you will have C_infinity that again, under given condition C_inf > C1. You can prove 2.
 
Last edited:
Thanks for your sugestion. I want to prove that both C_0 and C_inf are larger than C_1. Could you give more detailed hints? Thanks a lot!

Emieno said:
1) So, what happens if you let B=0, then B=1 ? Base on your given condition C0>C1, you can prove 1.
2) Things are just the same, you pay attention to 4n(n-1) which is kind of a sum's result, and let B->infinity, then you will have C_infinity that again, under given condition C_inf > C1. You can prove 2.
 

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