Proving Integral Property for Constant One-Forms in R^3

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on proving a property of integrals involving constant one-forms in \(\mathbb{R}^3\). Participants explore the mathematical formulation and reasoning behind the equality of integrals over specified paths connecting three points in three-dimensional space.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes that the equality of integrals follows from the transitive property or the triangle inequality.
  • Another participant challenges the use of the triangle inequality, noting that the context involves an equality rather than an inequality.
  • A different participant emphasizes the significance of using constant one-forms, suggesting that the transitive property may not apply if the forms were not constant.
  • One participant identifies an error in the expression provided by another and offers a corrected formulation, showing how to collect terms with the same coefficients.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the applicability of the transitive property and the triangle inequality in this context. There is no consensus on the validity of the initial reasoning presented.

Contextual Notes

Some participants highlight potential errors in mathematical expressions and reasoning, but these remain unresolved within the discussion.

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Given a constant one-form [tex]k_1 \ dx + k_2 \ dy + k_3 \ dz[/tex] in [tex]\bold{R}^{3}[/tex], and three points [tex]\vec{a}, \ \vec{b}, \ \vec{c}[/tex] in [tex]\bold{R}^3[/tex], prove that [tex]\int_{\vec{a}}^{\vec{c}} k_1 \ dx + k_2 \ dy + k_3 \ dz = \int_{\vec{a}}^{\vec{b}} k_1 \ dx + k_2 \ dy + k_3 \dz + \int_{\vec{b}}^{\vec{c}} k_1 \ dx + k_2 \ dy + k_3 \ dz[/tex].

So we want to show that [tex]k_{1}(c_1-a_1) + k_2(c_2-a_2) + k_3(c_3-a_3) = k_{1}(b_1-a_1) + k_2(b_2-a_2) + k_3(b_3-a_3) + k_1(c_1-b_1) + k_2(c_2-b_2) + k_3(c_3-a_3)[/tex].

Doesn't this follow from the transitive property, or the triangle inequality?
 
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Since there is no inequality there, it certainly isn't a "triangle inequality"!

Perhaps if you stated the "transitive property" for integrals.
 
Well I think the key idea is that we are using constant 1-forms. If it were not constant, then we could not use the transitive property.
 
[tex]k_{1}(c_1-a_1) + k_2(c_2-a_2) + k_3(c_3-a_3) = k_{1}(b_1-a_1) + k_2(b_2-a_2) + k_3(b_3-a_3) + k_1(c_1-b_1) + k_2(c_2-b_2) + k_3(c_3-b_3)[/tex] You had an error here in the last parentese

if you collect the terms with same k you get

[tex]k_{1}(b_1-a_1) + k_2(b_2-a_2) + k_3(b_3-a_3) + k_1(c_1-b_1) + k_2(c_2-b_2) + k_3(c_3-b_3) =[/tex]

[tex]k_{1}(b_1-a_1 +c_1-b_1) + k_2(b_2-a_2+c_2-b_2)+k_3(b_3-a_3+c_3-b_3)= k_{1}(c_1-a_1) + k_2(c_2-a_2)+k_3(c_3-a_3)[/tex]

is that what you want?
 
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