Proving Linear Independence of Polynomials with Non-Zero Degrees | Math Solution

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the linear independence of polynomials, specifically the set {p, q, pq}. It is established that {p, q, pq} is linearly independent if and only if both deg(p) and deg(q) are greater than or equal to 1. A counterexample using deg(p) = -1 and deg(q) = -2, involving the functions p(x) = 1/x and q(x) = 1/x^2, is presented but ultimately deemed invalid as it does not conform to the definition of polynomials, which require non-negative degrees.

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kash25
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Linear independence!?

Homework Statement


Let {p, q} be linearly independent polynomials. Show that {p, q, pq} is linearly independent if and only if deg(p)>=1 and deg(q)>=1.


The Attempt at a Solution



I am pretty sure the statement to prove is incorrect.
If we use deg(p) = -1 and deg(q) = -2, we can easily show that the two are linearly independent (consider the functions p(x) = 1/x and q(x) = 1/x^2).
We can have k/x + l/x^2 = 0
then kx + l = 0.
Then we can differentiate and get k = 0 and l = 0, which disproves the statement.
How does this make any sense?
 
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If you are talking about polynomials you are only talking about linear combinations of x^n where n>=0. There is so much more wrong with your counterexample, I don't know where to start... The statement is true, now try and prove it.
 

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