Proving Natural Number e: Exponential Value Explained

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical proof of the natural number e, specifically through the limit of the expression (1 + 1/n)^n as n approaches infinity. Participants explore the implications of substituting n with infinity and the resulting interpretations of the limit.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether (1 + 1/n)^n approaches 1 as n approaches infinity, suggesting that it simplifies to (1 + 0)^n = 1.
  • Another participant points out that substituting n with infinity leads to the indeterminate form 1^∞, which complicates the evaluation.
  • A different participant provides a series expansion for (1 + 1/n)^n, arguing that it does not converge to 1 as n becomes infinite.
  • A later reply discusses the manipulation of limits, highlighting that the order of limits can affect the outcome, leading to different results depending on the path taken in the limit process.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the behavior of the limit as n approaches infinity, with no consensus reached on the interpretation of the expression or the validity of the manipulations discussed.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes considerations of nested limits and their implications, as well as the potential for different results based on the approach taken in evaluating limits. The nuances of limit behavior are emphasized, but no specific resolutions are provided.

henrywang
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For proving the natural number, e.
(1+1/n)^n As n approches infinite, (1+1/n)^n ----> e
However, wouldn't it become one as n becomes infinite?
(1+1/n)^n=(1+0)^n=1
Could anyone explain this to me please!
 
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If you just naively substitute ##n=\infty##, then you would get

(1+0)^\infty = 1^\infty

which is an indeterminate form. Surely, things like ##1^2## and ##1^{100}## equal ##1##. But if the exponent is infinity, then it's an indeterminate form.
 
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(1+\frac{1}{n})^n = 1 + n\frac{1}{n} +\frac{ n(n-1)}{2!} \frac{1}{n^2} + ... \frac{1}{n^n}

This does not ->1 as n becomes infinite.
 
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henrywang said:
For proving the natural number, e.
(1+1/n)^n As n approches infinite, (1+1/n)^n ----> e
However, wouldn't it become one as n becomes infinite?
(1+1/n)^n=(1+0)^n=1
Could anyone explain this to me please!

The manipulation here takes a limit involving one variable and turns it into what amounts to a pair of nested limits involving two variables. The original formula was:

<br /> \displaystyle\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} {(1+\frac{1}{n})^n}<br />

The attempted manipulation was to:

<br /> \displaystyle\lim_{{n_1}\rightarrow +\infty} {\displaystyle\lim_{{n_2}\rightarrow +\infty} {(1+\frac{1}{n_2})^{n_1}}}<br />

which is distinct from:

<br /> \displaystyle\lim_{{n_2}\rightarrow +\infty} {\displaystyle\lim_{{n_1}\rightarrow +\infty} {(1+\frac{1}{n_2})^{n_1}}}<br />

Those two nested limits give different results. The first one evaluates to 1. The second one does not exist at all. Limits do not always commute.

One way of seeing this is to imagine the formula {(1+\frac{1}{x})^y} as a function of two variables. It is defined everywhere in the first quadrant of the coordinate plane for x and y. You can imagine extending the definition to infinite x and infinite y by tracing a path going off into the distance and looking at the limit of the function values along that path. It then turns out that the limit you get depends on the path you take.

The prescription in the original formulation was for a path running exactly on the 45° line through the middle of the first quadrant.
 
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