CornMuffin
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Homework Statement
Let A = A1 x ... x An
B = B1 x ... x Bn
C = C1 x ... x Cn
Such that A,B,C are non empty, [itex]A=B\cup C[/itex] and [itex]B\cap C = \emptyset[/itex]
prove that there exists a k in {1,...,n} such that [itex]B_k\cap C_k = \emptyset[/itex]
and for [itex]i\neq k[/itex], [itex]A_i = B_i = C_i[/itex]
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
I figure the best way to prove this is by induction.
for n=1, there is nothing to show, so I will start with n=2
Assume [itex]B_1 \cap C_1 \neq \emptyset[/itex] and [itex]B_2 \cap C_2 \neq \emptyset[/itex]
then [itex]B \cap C = (B_1 \times B_2 )\cap (C_1 \times C_2) = (B_1 \cap C_1) \times (B_2 \cap C_2)[/itex]
which implies that [itex]B \cap C \neq \emptyset[/itex] since [itex]B_1 \cap C_1 \neq \emptyset[/itex] and [itex]B_2 \cap C_2 \neq \emptyset[/itex]
but this is a contradiction to our conditions, therefore, there exists a k in {1,...,n} such that [itex]B_k\cap C_k = \emptyset[/itex]
it seems like this can be easily extended for any n
but i am having trouble proving the second part of the problem:
for [itex]i\neq k[/itex], [itex]A_i = B_i = C_i[/itex]
I tried using proof by contradiction for n=2, but i couldn't get anywhere with that
Any hints on what I should try?