Proving P(B)>=P(A) using Kolmogrov's axioms

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the inequality P(B) ≥ P(A) given that A is a subset of B, using Kolmogorov's axioms of probability. The original poster presents an attempt involving a Venn diagram and the axioms of probability.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use a Venn diagram to express the relationship between P(B) and P(A) through the equation P(B) = P(A) + P(∼A ∩ B). They question whether their reasoning leads to P(B) ≤ P(A) instead of the desired inequality.

Discussion Status

Some participants engage with the original poster's notation and reasoning, clarifying the meaning of the notation used. There is a suggestion that the original poster's conclusion may indeed align with the question's requirement, indicating a productive direction in the discussion.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of potential confusion regarding the notation used for the relative complement, which may affect the interpretation of the proof. The original poster expresses uncertainty about their conclusion and considers seeking further clarification from their professor.

amai
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Homework Statement


Suppose A is a subset of B. Using the three axioms to establish P(B)≥P(A)


Homework Equations


Axioms...
1. For any event A, P(A)\geq0
2.P(S)=1
3.If events A1,A2... are mutually exclusive, then P(\cupAi)=\sumP(Ai)


The Attempt at a Solution



From the venn diagram I drew, i have...

B=A+\overline{A}B
P(B)=P(A\cup\overline{A}B)
P(B)=P(A)+P(\overline{A}B)

According to axiom 1, P(\overline{A}B)≥0 ... but doesn't that mean i just proved P(B)≤P(A)?
 
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Does your notation \overline{A}B mean the relative complement of ##A## in ##B##, in other words ##B \setminus A = B \cap A^c##?
If so, then I agree with your proof.
 
Yes, that is what i meant. Maybe the solution is wrong then... i guess i'll have to ask my professor.
 
amai said:
Yes, that is what i meant. Maybe the solution is wrong then... i guess i'll have to ask my professor.
Sorry, I misread your question:
but doesn't that mean i just proved P(B)≤P(A)?
No, you proved ##P(B) \geq P(A)##, just like the question asked. Your obtained this result:
$$P(B) = P(A) + P(B \setminus A)$$
which means that ##P(B) \geq P(A)##, since you have to add the nonnegative number ##P(B \setminus A)## to ##P(A)## in order to obtain ##P(B)##.
 

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