Proving solutions to the schrodinger equation

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on verifying that the wave functions \(\Psi(x,t) = A \cos(kx - \omega t)\) and \(\Psi(x,t) = A \sin(kx - \omega t)\) are not solutions to the Schrödinger equation for a free particle. The key equation used is \(\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2} = \frac{i\hbar\partial \Psi}{\partial t}\). The analysis shows that the equality derived from substituting the derivatives does not hold for all values of \(y\), confirming that these functions do not satisfy the equation universally. The discussion also suggests using the exponential form \(A e^{i(kx - \omega t)}\) for a more straightforward approach.

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  • Understanding of the Schrödinger equation for free particles
  • Knowledge of wave functions and their properties
  • Familiarity with calculus, specifically partial derivatives
  • Basic concepts of quantum mechanics and wave-particle duality
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  • Study the implications of wave functions in quantum mechanics
  • Learn about the exponential form of wave functions, specifically \(A e^{i(kx - \omega t)}\)
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Bacat
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Homework Statement



Verify that the following are not solutions to the Schrödinger equation for a free particle:

(a) \Psi(x,t) = A*Cos(kx-\omega t)

(b) \Psi(x,t) = A*Sin(kx-\omega t)

Homework Equations



Schrödinger equation: \frac{-hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2} = \frac{i*hbar*\partial \Psi}{\partial t}

The Attempt at a Solution



For part a:

Let y=kx-\omega t

Calculating the derivatives gives...

\frac{\partial^2 \Psi}{\partial x^2}=-Ak^2*Cos y
\frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial t} = A*\omega*Sin y

Substituting and rearranging, we see that:

Sin y = \frac{hbar * k^2}{2mi\omega}Cos y

Let f=\frac{hbar * k^2}{2mi\omega}

Then Sin y = f Cos y

The equality holds when y=\pm ArcCos(\pm\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+f^2}})

If we substitute back in...

kx-\omega t = \pm ArcCos(\pm\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+\frac{hbar^2k^4}{4m^2\omega^2}}})

If I assign some values to omega, m, hbar, and k, I can graph x as a function of t for one of the cases. It shows up as a straight line with a positive slope.

This does not seem to prove that (a) is not a solution to Schrödinger's equation. I think I may be making this more complicated than it is. How should I approach this problem differently?
 
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Bacat said:
[
Substituting and rearranging, we see that:

Sin y = \frac{hbar * k^2}{2mi\omega}Cos y

Let f=\frac{hbar * k^2}{2mi\omega}

Then Sin y = f Cos y

This right here should tell you that \Psi(x,t) = A*Cos(kx-\omega t) is not a solution to the Schrödinger equation. If it were, you would expect it to satisfy the Schrödinger equation everywhere (i.e. for all values of y)--- which it clearly doesn't.
 

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