Proving the Banana Theorum with Permutations

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The discussion revolves around the Banana Theorem, which involves calculating the number of distinct arrangements of a set A with n elements of k different types, where elements of the same type are indistinguishable. The formula provided is n! divided by the product of the factorials of the counts of each type, expressed as n! / Π(n[i]!). The user is trying to derive this theorem and relates it to known permutation equations, but is confused by the product notation in the denominator. A specific example is given to clarify the calculation, illustrating how to apply the formula with concrete numbers. Understanding this theorem is essential for solving related combinatorial problems.
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Homework Statement



According to my teacher, this is the Banana theorum, but I don't know if this is actually any concrete or just something he coined.

(I have to prove/derive this)

Let A be a set with n elements of k different types (such that elements of the same type are regarded as indistinguishable from one another for purposes of ordering.) Let ni. be the number of elements of type i for each integer form 1 to k. Then the number of different arrangements of the elements in A will be

n!/\Pi (ni!)


There is supposed to be the usual i=1 below the PI and a k above it.


Homework Equations



P(k,n) = n!/(n-k)!



The Attempt at a Solution




Well, this looks like a like a permutation to me, so i figure it can be derived the same way the equation above can be (I know how to derive that one.) However, since I am fairly green when it comes to the product notation of the denominater, I find myself a little confused on how exactly I can derive this one (and even what this equation is saying.)
 
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The big fat pi is the product analogue to the big fat sigma for sums. Suppose for example that k=3 and n1= 2, n2=3, n3=5. Then the denominator of the fraction would be (2!)(3!)(5!).
 
For your reference:

\frac{n!}{\prod_{i=0}^k n_i!}
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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