Proving Z[x] and Q[x] is not isomorphic

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the polynomial rings $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ and $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ are not isomorphic. Key arguments include the fact that $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ is a Euclidean domain and a principal ideal domain, while $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ is not, as demonstrated by the ideal $I = \langle x, 2 \rangle$. Additionally, the mapping $\theta:\mathbb{Z}[x]\to\mathbb{Q}[x]$ fails to maintain the necessary properties of a ring homomorphism, particularly in relation to the identity element. This establishes that no correct mapping exists between the two rings.

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  • Understanding of polynomial rings, specifically $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ and $\mathbb{Q}[x]$.
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  • Familiarity with Euclidean domains and principal ideal domains.
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Mathematicians, algebra students, and educators interested in abstract algebra, particularly those studying ring theory and polynomial rings.

cbarker1
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Dear Everyone,

What is the correct mapping between the polynomial rings $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ and $\mathbb{Q}[x]$? The function $\phi$ is defined as $\phi(x^2+1)=\frac{1}{2}x$. I want to prove this problem by contradiction.

Thanks,
Cbarker1
 
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Hi Cbarker1,

I don't see what is the point of your function $\phi$: it is not even defined on the whole of $\mathbb{Z}$.

In reference to the title of you post, to prove that $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ and $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ are not isomorphic, you could use the fact that $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ is a Euclidean domain, and therefore a principal ideal domain.

On the other hand, $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ is not a principal ideal domain; for example, in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$, the ideal $I =\langle x,2\rangle$ is not principal.
 
I can't use the principal ideal domain. Or Euclidean domain...because I have not learn about it yet.
 
Hi again,

In fact, it is even simpler. If $\theta:\mathbb{Z}[x]\to\mathbb{Q}[x]$ is an isomorphism, then $\theta(1) = 1$, because any ring homomorphism must map $1$ to $1$.

Now, in $\mathbb{Q}[x]$, we have $1 = \dfrac12+\dfrac12$. If $f(x)=\theta^{-1}(\dfrac12)$, we must have $f(x)+f(x) = 1$ in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$, and it is obvious that no integer polynomial satisfies that relation.

We have simply elaborated on the fact that $\mathbb{Z}$ is not isomorphic to $\mathbb{Q}$.
 
The point is that because they are not isomorphic, there is no "correct mapping"! If you wanted to prove that two rings are isomorphic then you would want to find a mapping that is an isomorphism. (But there still might not be a single "correct" one.)
 
I was trying to do a contradiction proof for that problem.
 

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