So I just proved that Q (the rationals) is not free abelian since it must have an empty basis. But Q is isomorphic to Z^2 = ƩZ which is equivalent to Q having a nonempty basis. I must be wrong about the isomorphism but I don't see why.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Q (the rationals) not free abelian yet iso to Z^2?

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